Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem:

The #1 Mathematical Discovery of the 20th Century

In 1931, Kurt Gödel delivered a devastating blow to the mathematicians of his time

In 1931, Kurt Gödel delivered a devastating blow to the mathematicians of his time

In 1931, the young mathematician Kurt Gödel made a landmark discovery, as powerful as anything Albert Einstein developed.

Gödel’s discovery not only applied to mathematics but literally all branches of science, logic and human knowledge. It has truly earth-shattering implications.

Oddly, few people know anything about it.

Allow me to tell you the story.

Mathematicians love proofs. They were hot and bothered for centuries, because they were unable to PROVE some of the things they knew were true.

So for example if you studied high school Geometry, you’ve done the exercises where you prove all kinds of things about triangles based on a list of theorems.

That high school geometry book is built on Euclid’s five postulates. Everyone knows the postulates are true, but in 2500 years nobody’s figured out a way to prove them.

Yes, it does seem perfectly reasonable that a line can be extended infinitely in both directions, but no one has been able to PROVE that. We can only demonstrate that they are a reasonable, and in fact necessary, set of 5 assumptions.

Towering mathematical geniuses were frustrated for 2000+ years because they couldn’t prove all their theorems. There were many things that were “obviously” true but nobody could figure out a way to prove them.

In the early 1900′s, however, a tremendous sense of optimism began to grow in mathematical circles. The most brilliant mathematicians in the world (like Bertrand Russell, David Hilbert and Ludwig Wittgenstein) were convinced that they were rapidly closing in on a final synthesis.

A unifying “Theory of Everything” that would finally nail down all the loose ends. Mathematics would be complete, bulletproof, airtight, triumphant.

In 1931 this young Austrian mathematician, Kurt Gödel, published a paper that once and for all PROVED that a single Theory Of Everything is actually impossible.

Gödel’s discovery was called “The Incompleteness Theorem.”

If you’ll give me just a few minutes, I’ll explain what it says, how Gödel discovered it, and what it means – in plain, simple English that anyone can understand.

Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem says:

“Anything you can draw a circle around cannot explain itself without referring to something outside the circle – something you have to assume but cannot prove.”

You can draw a circle around all of the concepts in your high school geometry book. But they’re all built on Euclid’s 5 postulates

Stated in Formal Language:

Gödel’s theorem says: “Any effectively generated theory capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete. In particular, for any consistent, effectively generated formal theory that proves certain basic arithmetic truths, there is an arithmetical statement that is true, but not provable in the theory.”

The Church-Turing thesis says that a physical system can express elementary arithmetic just as a human can, and that the arithmetic of a Turing Machine (computer) is not provable within the system and is likewise subject to incompleteness.

Any physical system subjected to measurement is capable of expressing elementary arithmetic. (In other words, children can do math by counting their fingers, water flowing into a bucket does integration, and physical systems always give the right answer.)

Therefore the universe is capable of expressing elementary arithmetic and like both mathematics itself and a Turing machine, is incomplete.

Syllogism:

1. All non-trivial computational systems are incomplete

2. The universe is a non-trivial computational system

3. Therefore the universe is incomplete

which are clearly true but cannot be proven. Those 5 postulates are outside the book, outside the circle.

You can draw a circle around a bicycle but the existence of that bicycle relies on a factory that is outside that circle. The bicycle cannot explain itself.

Gödel proved that there are ALWAYS more things that are true than you can prove. Any system of logic or numbers that mathematicians ever came up with will always rest on at least a few unprovable assumptions.

Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem applies not just to math, but to everything that is subject to the laws of logic. Incompleteness is true in math; it’s equally true in science or language or philosophy.

And: If the universe is mathematical and logical, Incompleteness also applies to the universe.

Gödel created his proof by starting with “The Liar’s Paradox” — which is the statement

“I am lying.”

“I am lying” is self-contradictory, since if it’s true, I’m not a liar, and it’s false; and if it’s false, I am a liar, so it’s true.

So Gödel, in one of the most ingenious moves in the history of math, converted the Liar’s Paradox into a mathematical formula. He proved that any statement requires an external observer.

No statement alone can completely prove itself true.

His Incompleteness Theorem was a devastating blow to the “positivism” of the time. Gödel proved his theorem in black and white and nobody could argue with his logic.

Yet some of his fellow mathematicians went to their graves in denial, believing that somehow or another Gödel must surely be wrong.

He wasn’t wrong. It was really true. There are more things than are true than you can prove.

A “theory of everything” – whether in math, or physics, or philosophy – will never be found. Because it is impossible.

OK, so what does this really mean? Why is this super-important, and not just an interesting geek factoid?

Here’s what it means:

  • Faith and Reason are not enemies. In fact, the exact opposite is true! One is absolutely necessary for the other to exist. All reasoning ultimately traces back to faith in something that you cannot prove.
  • All closed systems depend on something outside the system.
  • You can always draw a bigger circle but there will still be something outside the circle.
  • Reasoning inward from a larger circle to a smaller circle is “deductive reasoning.”

Example of a deductive reasoning:
1. All men are mortal
2. Socrates is a man
3. Therefore Socrates is mortal

  • Reasoning outward from a smaller circle to a larger circle is “inductive reasoning.”

Examples of inductive reasoning:

1. All the men I know are mortal
2. Therefore all men are mortal

1. When I let go of objects, they fall
2. Therefore there is a law of gravity that governs falling objects

Notice than when you move from the smaller circle to the larger circle, you have to make assumptions that you cannot 100% prove.

For example you cannot PROVE gravity will always be consistent at all times. You can only observe that it’s consistently true every time. You cannot prove that the universe is rational. You can only observe that mathematical formulas like E=MC^2 do seem to perfectly describe what the universe does.

Nearly all scientific laws are based on inductive reasoning. These laws rest on an assumption that the universe is logical and based on fixed discoverable laws.

You cannot PROVE this. (You can’t prove that the sun will come up tomorrow morning either.) You literally have to take it on faith. In fact most people don’t know that outside the science circle is a philosophy circle. Science is based on philosophical assumptions that you cannot scientifically prove. Actually, the scientific method cannot prove, it can only infer.

(Science originally came from the idea that God made an orderly universe which obeys fixed, discoverable laws.)

Now please consider what happens when we draw the biggest circle possibly can – around the whole universe.
(If there are multiple universes, we’re drawing a circle around all of them too):

  • There has to be something outside that circle. Something which we have to assume but cannot prove
  • The universe as we know it is finite – finite matter, finite energy, finite space and 13.7 billion years time
  • The universe is mathematical. Any physical system subjected to measurement performs arithmetic. (You don’t need to know math to do addition – you can use an abacus instead and it will give you the right answer every time.)
  • The universe (all matter, energy, space and time) cannot explain itself
  • Whatever is outside the biggest circle is boundless. By definition it is not possible to draw a circle around it.
  • If we draw a circle around all matter, energy, space and time and apply Gödel’s theorem, then we know what is outside that circle is not matter, is not energy, is not space and is not time. It’s immaterial.
  • Whatever is outside the biggest circle is not a system – i.e. is not an assemblage of parts. Otherwise we could draw a circle around them. The thing outside the biggest circle is indivisible.
  • Whatever is outside the biggest circle is an uncaused cause, because you can always draw a circle around an effect.

We can apply the same inductive reasoning to the origin of information:

  • In the history of the universe we also see the introduction of information, some 3.5 billion years ago. It came in the form of the Genetic code, which is symbolic and immaterial.
  • The information had to come from the outside, since information is not known to be an inherent property of matter, energy, space or time
  • All codes we know the origin of are designed by conscious beings.
  • Therefore whatever is outside the largest circle is a conscious being.

In other words when we add information to the equation, we conclude that not only is the thing outside the biggest circle infinite and immaterial, it is also conscious.

Isn’t it interesting how all these things sound suspiciously similar to how theologians have described God for thousands of years?

So it’s hardly surprising that 80-90% of the people in the world believe in some concept of God. Yes, it’s intuitive to most folks. But Gödel’s theorem indicates it’s also supremely logical. In fact it’s the only position one can take and stay in the realm of reason and logic.

The person who proudly proclaims, “You’re a man of faith, but I’m a man of science” doesn’t understand the roots of science or the nature of knowledge!

Interesting aside…

If you visit the world’s largest atheist website, Infidels, on the home page you will find the following statement:

“Naturalism is the hypothesis that the natural world is a closed system, which means that nothing that is not part of the natural world affects it.”

If you know Gödel’s theorem, you know that all logical systems must rely on something outside the system. So according to Gödel’s Incompleteness theorem, the Infidels cannot be correct. If the universe is logical, it has an outside cause.

Thus atheism violates the laws of reason and logic.

The Incompleteness of the universe isn’t proof that God exists. But… it IS proof that in order to construct a rational, scientific model of the universe, belief in God is not just 100% logical… it’s necessary.

Euclid’s 5 postulates aren’t formally provable and God is not formally provable either. But… just as you cannot build a coherent system of geometry without Euclid’s 5 postulates, neither can you build a coherent description of the universe without a First Cause and a Source of order.

Thus faith and science are not enemies, but allies. It’s been true for hundreds of years, but in 1931 this skinny young Austrian mathematician named Kurt Gödel proved it.

No time in the history of mankind has faith in God been more reasonable, more logical, or more thoroughly supported by science and mathematics.

Perry Marshall

“Math is the language God wrote the universe in.”

Further reading:

Incompleteness: The Proof and Paradox of Kurt Gödel” by Rebecca Goldstein – fantastic biography and a great read

A collection of quotes and notes about Gödel’s proof from Miskatonic University Press

Formal description of Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem on Wikipedia

Science vs. Faith on CoffeehouseTheology.com

Information Theory: “If you can read this, I can prove God exists”

Comments on Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem »

  1. November 14,2009

    Tony Rush @ 10:11 am

    Perry, it still looks to me as though several assumptions are being made. For instance, this topic is called “Godel’s Incompleteness Theorem”.

    It’s not Godel’s Incompleteness LAW. It’s a theorem. So, even though it describes what we might not know about something else….the fact that it’s a theorem says that we can’t 100% know for sure that Godel’s perspective is right.

    Take the first line: “Draw a circle around anything and you must go outside that circle to explain it.” That is certainly true with bicycles and gravity…..but just as you mentioned that the sun might NOT come up tomorrow (and that is taken on faith), it’s equally possible that Godel’s theorem doesn’t apply to everything.

    For instance, you stated that — if we draw a circle around the Universe (or all the possible Universes) — “there has to be something outside that circle. Something which we have to assume but cannot prove”

    That’s not necessarily true. We might not even need to assume it. It’s quite possible that drawing a circle around everything all the known universes would include a perfect explanation and provide a Single Unifying Law.

    “The universe as we know it is finite – finite matter, finite energy, finite space and 13.8 billion years time
    The universe (all matter, energy, space and time) cannot explain itself”. — Again, this is assumptive. How do you know that it cannot explain itself? This would only be a true statement if we actually had all the knowledge about the Universe (which we don’t).

    “Whatever is outside the biggest circle is boundless.” There is nothing outside the circle. By any standard definition of “universe” or “universes”, if it exists, you’ve drawn a circle around it. It’s bad math to say “Draw a circle around all the known universes” and then to refer to something outside the universe. If there were something outside the circle, you would have drawn the circle to include it!

    We can go on and on…but (with respect) this doesn’t seem to be a logical argument. It seems to be an argument based on certain presuppositions. And I’m not saying that’s good, bad, right or wrong….just that this argument has too many assumptions to conclude that there’s no possibility of a Unifying Theory.

    • November 14,2009

      Perry @ 1:37 pm

      Tony,

      If Gödel can be shown to be wrong, then you have something to stand on.

      80 years have gone by and no one has demonstrated a flaw in Gödel’s logic.

      If Gödel’s Incompleteness theorem is true, then everything in my article directly and logically follows. Specifically, if we draw a circle around all matter, energy, space and time and label it “Universe” then according to Incompleteness, there has to be something outside the universe that caused it.

      If Gödel’s argument is logical, then my argument is also logical.

      You are invited to demonstrate a flaw in Gödel’s logic if you can. And I will certainly be happy to post that argument here on my blog.

      Perry Marshall

      • December 23,2009

        Steve @ 10:28 pm

        “I am lying.” Before I can lie I have to exist, and not only exist but conceive of myself. To conceive of myself I must split “me” as the subject that knows whether I am lying or not, from the “me” as an “object” that is either lying or not lying. That split is an artifice of the mind – reality is not split. It just “is”. That reality is not outside the circle of “me” as the subject, or “me” as the object that may or may not be lying. The perception of intelligence is merely the illusion of “self” as separate from reality. It is a trick of the mind.

        All perception is the splitting of reality into a subject and an object.

        Maybe you want to define god as the indivisible sum of all that is real? A bit superfluous, but it has it’s uses.

        • December 24,2009

          Perry @ 8:05 am

          Steve,

          A sum is divisible, so we can’t define God that way. We do have to define God as indivisible. God is one.

          I like your explanation of perception. If we define God as self-aware, then we automatically invoke a splitting like what you refer to. Which is where the Trinity comes from. Self, expression of self, and self-understanding (Father / Son = WORD / Holy Spirit).

          • December 24,2009

            Steve @ 10:08 am

            If you like my explanation of perception god cannot be self aware. I prefer god is just reality. This is my justification for my atheism.

            Full awareness is to be one with reality, one with god, and the self disappears. As a self we use science to explore objective reality and spiritual practice to explore the subjective reality. Both are lies, but by knowing the lies the truth is revealed. You cannot know it and survive, there is no split. You cannot know reality as there is no knower.

            • December 24,2009

              Perry @ 10:56 am

              IF there is no knower, then how do you KNOW that “you cannot know reality” and how do you KNOW that “there is no knower?”

      • May 7,2010

        Greg @ 1:14 pm

        Let me build you a universe that proves you don’t need anything “outside” in terms of assumptions.

        Imagine a fishbowl. Inside the fishbowl lives a little goldfish. Now, the goldfish can measure it’s lifespan, it can develop a philosophy on life, etc… Furthermore, it can measure the extent of it’s universe, the size of the fishbowl, it can measure the composition of everything inside it’s universe, the oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, etc…

        Now, for our purposes, erase the reality we perceive, outside of the fishbowl. The fish still exists within it’s universe, the outside world doesn’t need to exist for the inside world to exist (yes, you’ll argue the fishbowl and water, etc… had to come from somewhere, but that’s not the point of the argument, the point is that I can measure my universe without requiring anything on the outside of it). And, just like the fish we exist within our fishbowl universe, and there is nothing outside of it.

        Now, I can make ‘assumptions’ regarding where my universe came from, but that is my human nature to try and put things in perspective. The universe could care less about my perspective.

        This is the whole problem with your argument (and Godel’s), it is based upon perspective, human perspective through mathematics and logic. Worst thing we do as humans is when we validate our logic with mathematics to ‘prove’ our perspectives.

        We don’t know if the universe ‘began’ with a big bang, it’s just the best ‘theory’ we have based on observations. Furthermore, even if the current visible universe did begin with a big bang, that does not mean the universe has not existed in other forms before and even without time (since time is theorized to have been created with the big bang). So, in theory, the universe, in some state or other, could be infinite in age and have no beginning or ending. That being the case, if it has no beginning, than a creator become wholly unnecessary.

        Thank you.

        • May 11,2010

          Perry @ 5:22 am

          If reason and logic are not to be used to prove the superiority of one perspective over another, then what are they to be used for?

          According to what specific theory can the universe be of infinite age? Any such theory I’m aware of has to disregard the phenomenon of entropy, since an infinitely old series of universes would be cold and dead by now.

          I do agree that if you discard reason and logic then a creator does become unnecessary. In fact one of the subtler themes in this thread is, if you posit that the universe is irrational then atheism can be a valid conclusion.

          If you prefer that, it’s fine – let’s just be clear that you have chosen to embrace irrationality as the dominant lens for understanding the world.

          I choose to believe that the universe is rational, discoverable, measurable, and describable in mathematical terms. I believe that the discoveries and principles of science are real and not an illusion. This necessarily makes the universe incomplete and this is one of the many reasons I believe in God.

          • May 11,2010

            Greg @ 11:46 am

            Slow down a bit, first, I never said reason and logic are NOT to be used. I only stated that the “worst thing we do as humans is when we validate our logic with mathematics to ‘prove’ our perspectives.” Key to this statement is that we are not using reason and logic to determine what the “evidence” shows us. Instead, we take a perspective we want to believe, than use reason and logic to try and prove that perspective.

            Second, there is no theory that currently even tries to explain what existed before the big bang. However, since “time itself” was created with the big bang, than by ‘reason and logic’ whatever form the universe existed in before than (singularity for example) would have existed outside of time, and the only way to even remotely explain that is to use the term ‘infinite’.

            So no, I am not disregarding reason and logic, and I hope my further clarifications will make my explanations easier to understand. By reason and logic, a creator is unnecessary. Through faith we embrace a creator. A lack of faith cannot be replaced by reason and logic, it’s like a bandaid over a mortal wound, it simply will not heal.

            • May 11,2010

              Perry @ 2:44 pm

              Greg,

              My position is precisely what you said: the only way to even remotely explain that is to use the term ‘infinite’.

              That which is outside of space and time is infinite. And indivisible. I believe that everything I stated in my article is entirely logical, and that which logic tells us has to be outside the universe bears a striking resemblance to God.

              Yes, faith is necessary. In some ways that’s what inductive reasoning is. I hope I have shown that all conclusions require faith, but that faith in God is a much shorter leap than the alternatives.

  2. November 14,2009

    Tony Rush @ 1:58 pm

    Perry, I’m not making this an issue of “right” or “wrong”. It’s simply a matter of workability.

    Draw a circle around all matter, energy, space and time and label it “Universe” and you cannot definitively say that it is dependent on something else outside it. You can speculate that it might be….but there is where the line is drawn between theorem and law.

    Simply put, we don’t have enough information to say emphatically that Godel’s theorem is true. That’s why it’s a theorem. We can point to multiple ways that it IS true. But, it still makes its own assumptions in matters that cannot be observably demonstrated.

    Thanks for the dialogue!

    Tony

    • November 14,2009

      Perry @ 3:57 pm

      A theorem is not the same as a theory. Gödel wrote a formal proof of his theorem. You can read his proof here:

      On formally undecidable propositions of Principia Mathematica and related systems

      This is why we have enough information to say emphatically that Gödel’s theorem is true. To say otherwise is to reject the very process of mathematics, proof and logic.

      • March 26,2010

        Zach @ 2:16 am

        It seems to me that you’re applying logic ti everything but your own proofs.

        Unless I misunderstand, Godel’s Theorem as you apply it boils down to your explanation of inductive reasoning, in that, you have to make assumptions in order to prove something.

        My biggest issue with this is that, you cannot then prove your assumptions are any truer, because you have a never ending regression of assumptions. You have then, somehow, gone from Godel’s theorem which boils down to, nothing can be proven definitively, since all proofs are based on assumptions, to “proving” an existence of god. I miss that leap of logic.

        Some of your assumptions seems incredibly flawed, for example your assumption “In the history of the universe we also see the introduction of information, some 3 billion years ago. It came in the form of the Genetic code, which is symbolic and immaterial.” How is this the introduction of information? The genetic codes are written using chemicals and enzymes. Those chemicals are just bits of information as well, made up of individual molecules and elements. Are not those molecules predating the genetic code?

        Take, for example, the classic argument for intelligent design. You come across a watch on a beach. You then make the assumption that someone must have created it, for in your experience you’ve never witnessed something so complex coalesce without intelligence creating it. But, and here is my central problem with your writing, how can you prove that assumption is true? And since you cannot do that without making another assumption, how can you prove the watch wasn’t coalesced, randomly, by nature and chaos?

        How can you prove anything at all, from a theorem which states nothing can be proven without that outside observer, without some set of assumptions that may or not be true themselves.

        • March 26,2010

          Perry @ 5:41 am

          Zach,

          You did not read my original article closely enough. My actual words:

          “The Incompleteness of the universe isn’t proof that God exists. But… it IS proof that in order to construct a consistent model of the universe, belief in God is not just 100% logical… it’s necessary.”

          If you read my entire article very carefully you will see that I have made a 100% logical progression from Gödel’s theorem to an understanding that ultimately the universe and all logic inevitably regress back to ONE unprovable but necessary axiom. If I have made a leap of logic then I invite anyone to show me where it is.

          The closest thing to a leap in logic is the INFERENCE that the laws of mathematics, and therefore also Gödel’s theorem, apply to the universe. I cannot prove this. But if you do not assume this, all of science itself comes apart at the seams. Every science experiment in modern times assumes the universe is mathematical. And if it is then Gödel’s theorem applies to the universe just as it applies to pure mathematics.

          In other words I do not have the full authority of mathematical proof in saying this but I do have the full authority of science. If algebra, calculus, vectors, complex numbers and differential equations apply to the universe then so does incompleteness.

          As for information theory and chemicals, once again you have not taken the time to read the referenced links. You will need to go to http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/faq and apprise yourself of information theory as it relates to biology. I am using the definition of Claude Shannon information which is based on a complete communication system. Chemicals alone do not contain any information at all according to the Shannon definition. You have to have encoder, code and decoder to have Shannon information.

          All systems of encoder / code / decoder are created by conscious minds. No known exceptions.

          Have you ever seen a watch coalesce randomly by nature and chaos?

          Without making the same sort of unfounded presumption which you accuse me of, have you ever personally seen ANY machine of any kind coalesce randomly by nature and chaos? Any motor? Any pump? Any encoding / decoding system? Have you ever witnessed any such thing in your own personal experience? Ever?

          David Hume allegedly overturned Paley’s watch argument by pointing out that the analogy between a living organism and a watch was flawed. Information theory and Shannon’s model of communication put Paley’s watch argument back on solid ground and overturn Hume’s argument. The following statement is the reason why:

          “Information, transcription, translation, code, redundancy, synonymous, messenger, editing, and proofreading are all appropriate terms in biology. They take their meaning from information theory (Shannon, 1948) and are not synonyms, metaphors, or analogies.” (Hubert P. Yockey, Information Theory, Evolution, and the Origin of Life, Cambridge University Press, 2005)

          If you can find one example of a naturally occurring code I’ll write you a check for $10,000. The specification for doing so is here: http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/solve/

  3. November 14,2009

    Rod MacKenzie @ 4:46 pm

    I agree with your logic, Perry (and Godel’s), thanks for sharing.

    Any assumptions that are made when discussing where the universe came from seem to me to be related to the law of causality…anything that begins to exist has a cause. I think that’s a safe assumption.

    Philosopher William Lane Craig puts it like this:

    Premise 1): Anything that begins to exist has a cause.
    Premise 2): The universe began to exist.
    Conclusion: The Universe had a cause.

    1) The ability of things popping into existence from nothing without a cause is not worth arguing.

    2) Both science and philosophy support the idea that the universe had a beginning.

    Therefore…it must have had a cause.

    It doesn’t specifically point to the Christian God that I believe in, I have other reasons for that belief.

    However, based on Godel and a finite universe I don’t think one can argue that the idea of a god of some sort is illogical.

    What caused God? It’s not a coherent question. By definition God is eternal…uncaused…was always there, unlike the finite universe.

    So “What caused God?” becomes “What caused the un-caused being?” Doesn’t make sense.

    Always interested in this kind of discussion, though don’t usually have so much to say…thanks for posting!

    Rod MacKenzie

    • November 14,2009

      Perry @ 5:01 pm

      Rod, you’re right. And if Gödel’s theorem applies to a rock then it applies equally to a planet and equally to all planets and to the whole universe. There’s nothing about zooming in or zooming out that suddenly changes everything.

      • November 15,2009

        Rod MacKenzie @ 8:28 am

        Perry,
        I checked out your talk on Information Theory: “If you can read this, I can prove God exists” on the Cosmic Fingerprints site and found it excellent.

        I would like to offer a link to this talk in a Blog I’m working on re: the rationality of the Christian worldview…I had already planned my next post around the same topic.

        Do you mind? If not, should I just send readers to the Cosmic Fingerprints site, or do you have this talk available on one of your own sites that you’d prefer I link to?

        Thanks,
        Rod

        • November 15,2009

          Perry @ 9:50 am

          Rod,

          Use it in any way you want. Also there’s a link “Origin of Life Video” which is similar – that may be useful too. I salute your efforts – nice site you have!

          Perry

          • November 15,2009

            Rod MacKenzie @ 11:28 am

            Thanks Perry,
            I look forward to reading more interesting stuff from you, and I’ll definitely be linking to Cosmic Fingerprints from my Rational Faith site.
            Rod

    • March 5,2010

      graeme @ 4:03 am

      It’s also interesting that so many that have posted here can point to the universe and say that since it exists, it must have a cause, and if there is a cause then a god of some form must exist in order to cause it.
      If it is accepted as true that nothing can exist without a creator, then God CANNOT exist without being caused by something else.
      If you claim that God exists, and can do so without a cause since that is part of the definition of what it means to be God, then it MUST follow that other things (such as the universe) could do so without a creator as well.

      • March 6,2010

        Perry @ 1:10 pm

        The reason the universe cannot be uncaused is because of entropy. If it were infinitely old, there would be no available energy remaining. You can’t burn a candle twice. Modern cosmology has established that the universe is approximately 13.7 billion years old and began in a single point expanding with the big bang.

        Gödel’s theorem shows that the cause of the universe has to be outside the universe, since the universe is by necessity incomplete.

        • March 6,2010

          Matt @ 2:45 pm

          The single direction of entropy and our perception of an “arrow of time” are closely bound together (we remember the past and not the future, and perceive everything as inexorably rolling from the past into the future, and at the same time from a low entropy state to a high entropy state) but it is conceivable that we may simply be in a region of a larger universe, where chance fluctuation created a (temporary) condition of low entropy, that is now returning to a ‘baseline’ level of entropy over billions of years.

          In this wider universe, without the steady progression of entropy there might equally be little in the way of an orderly flow of time, matter interacting in ways that are very hard to imagine intuitively (I don’t claim to be able to understand what that would be like, which I’m aware must sound frustratingly similar to the “it’s a mystery” so often put forward as a nonexplanation by religion, but the model is workable, and it would be a way to explain our universe without appeal to a truly unknowable supernatural force.

          The ‘outer’ universe would be an inhospitable place for our kind of life, but the idea would have some accord with the multiverse idea; relatively distinct universes expanding into their own pockets or bubbles of space.

          I’m not saying that’s how it happened, or that it’s how I believe it happened; my stance would be to file it under “maybe plausible, pending further evidence”.

          • March 8,2010

            Perry @ 5:53 pm

            Matt,

            I think it’s significant that in order to avoid the obvious consequences of entropy you have to invoke an undetectable universe in which entropy works differently than it works here.

            I’d have a hard time calling such a theory parsimonious. Or scientific.

            Are you unconditionally committed to atheism as a worldview or are you willing to follow the evidence where it leads?

            On what basis do you assert that a supernatural force is unknowable?

    • August 9,2010

      vijeno @ 11:16 pm

      Why do you define that which is outside the known universe as uncaused? How do you arrive at the conclusion that it is?

      If anything exists, then it is reasonable to assume that it is caused, yes. This seems to go for anything that has ever been observed. It is mere speculation to say that it does not go for a being that is outside the known universe. In fact, once we knew that being, it would instantly become part of the known universe, and thus, caused.

      • August 10,2010

        Perry @ 7:40 am

        Inevitably you arrive at the necessity of an uncaused cause. Just do a Google search on “infinite regression” and you’ll quickly see why philosophers universally reject it.

        Christian theology has always defined God as NOT being part of the known universe, but a cause of it. This is entirely different from eastern religious views like pantheism and panentheism which see God as being part of the universe.

        • August 12,2010

          vijeno @ 12:51 am

          Please name your reasoning for rejecting an infinite regress. What christianity says about god is as irrelevant at what a few philosophers have said, since this is only an appeal to authority. In a discussion among adults, you show your logical deductions, and we can talk.

          • August 13,2010

            Perry @ 10:39 am

            From Wikipedia:

            An infinite regress in a series of propositions arises if the truth of proposition P1 requires the support of proposition P2, and for any proposition in the series Pn, the truth of Pn requires the support of the truth of Pn+1. There would never be adequate support for P1, because the infinite sequence needed to provide such support could not be completed.

            A vicious regress is “an attempt to solve a problem which re-introduced the same problem in the proposed solution. If one continues along the same lines, the initial problem will recur infinitely and will never be solved.

            An infinite regress such as you are advocating only proliferates the problem you are trying to solve right here. It is a non-answer.

            I have showed entirely logical deductions. I have not appealed to authority, only Gödel’s theorem and logic.

            So far as I can tell, your only reason for rejecting my answer is that you don’t like it. Can you present logical explanation for the origin of the universe that doesn’t just go around in circles?

  4. November 16,2009

    Alasdair @ 7:34 am

    Very interesting stuff.

    This is a bit off topic but I find myself saying, “Yep; something must have created the universe”, but then the next thing that pops into mind is “so what”? Why do people go to such extraordinary lengths to ‘prove’ it to others (like you do Perry :) ? Even going as far as killing people.

    How does that faith help us or impact our lives? Obviously the answer to that depends on each person’s concept of what the creator is, but to me it doesn’t help and shouldn’t make a bit of difference to how we behave.

    • November 16,2009

      Perry @ 9:44 am

      Alasdair,

      There is a huge battle in the marketplace of ideas regarding the existence of God. Look at how many books on this topic are bestsellers during the last few years. Yes, I have gone to great lengths…. Even to the point of writing an 1800 word summary of Gödel’s theorem :^>

      Actually I have done much more than just that, which you can see if you visit my other websites http://www.coffeehousetheology.com and http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com.

      I believe that no civilization rises higher than its idea of God. A lot of people consider faith to be a private personal thing which others should not be bothered with; but I think that idea is false. Our faith, whatever it may be, greatly affects what we do.

      The US Declaration of Independence says, “We hold these things to be self-evident, that all men are endowed with certain inalienable rights, including life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.”

      The very idea of human rights is a faith statement. It is not scientifically provable. It can’t be derived from Darwinism. It comes from a belief not only in God but God’s relation to mankind.

      These things matter a lot.

      A counterexample would be the abuses of communism in the 20th century. Is it merely a coincidence that the governments who killed more than 100 million people just happened to be officially atheistic? Atheist regimes killed more people in one century than religious wars killed in all centuries put together. Could that really be just a happy accident?

      A few articles I think might provoke more thinking on this:

      http://www.perrymarshall.com/merry-christmas-2008/

      http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/faq

      To the average guy on the street it seems like people are good or bad simply because they’re either good people or bad people and religion has nothing to do with it. But I would challenge you to press further: WHY should I believe in human rights? WHY should we take care of sick people and handicapped people? WHY should we try to eradicate poverty? What happens when you drill down to bedrock on those questions? What do you find?

      Perry

  5. November 17,2009

    James R Meyer @ 7:13 am

    Perry says:
    ‘You are invited to demonstrate a flaw in Gödel’s logic if you can. And I will certainly be happy to post that argument here on my blog.’

    Well, it’s not that hard to point out the flaw in Godel’s argument. It isn’t something that can be put into a few lines, but you can see it here:
    http://jamesrmeyer.com/godel_flaw.html

    and in simplified form, together with a simplified explanation of Godel’s proof here:
    http://jamesrmeyer.com/ffgit/GodelSimplified0.html

    • November 17,2009

      Perry @ 8:36 am

      James,

      Q: Are you only seeking to show a flaw in Gödel’s original paper, or are you seeking to broadly show that the Incompleteness theorem in its various current forms is fundamentally incorrect?

      Perry

    • November 22,2009

      Perry @ 2:17 am

      James,

      I am not sufficiently trained in formal mathematics to decide, myself, whether you are right or wrong. Perhaps I could with time but that would require a very significant time commitment from me. Readers can decide for themselves.

      What I will say is that based on reading the online debates about this for a couple of hours, I’m not persuaded that you’re correct. I sifted through these threads:

      http://mathforum.org/kb/message.jspa?messageID=6300764&tstart=0
      and
      http://groups.google.com/group/sci.logic/browse_frm/thread/3fd9e2fe7b924c74/270a6b8f731207cf?hl=en&pli=1
      and
      http://r6.ca/Goedel/FFGITReview.html
      and
      http://www.jamesrmeyer.com/ffgit/review-oconnor.html

      I believe everyone is being fair with you. Also I believe that if you are correct about this, you can get this published. There is surely a mathematics journal that would be willing to risk opposing the Gödel doctrine. Such a thing would be a newsworthy event.

      My own judgment is based on several things:

      1) The conversations I see here are generally not vitriolic. There is real discussion happening here. I know what knuckleheads sound like when they’re in denial of losing an argument, and these people are neither knuckleheads, nor are they losing the argument.
      2) This is not a shades of gray issue with dozens of difficult-to-quantify factors, like arguing about, say, the myriad causes of global warming. This is math and logic.
      3) Gödel’s theorem has been scrutinized and obsessed over for decades. The Logical Positivists in particular had enormous motivations to disprove Incompleteness when Gödel first published his paper; yet they could not. I find it difficult to believe that Wittgenstein and Bertrand Russell and even Hilbert would have been unable to find this flaw 50+ years ago if it were real. Not to mention thousands of others who have followed.

      Again, readers can judge for themselves. In my opinion there is a slim possibility that the mathematical profession has been wrong about Gödel for 80 years but it’s not a horse I’m willing to bet on.

      If you are right then I salute you and in any case encourage you to consider getting your findings published.

  6. December 23,2009

    lvleph @ 9:53 pm

    I am a mathematician, and I can tell you for sure that you have a basic misunderstanding of what the theory of everything is; the theory of everything is a grand unifying field theory. It has nothing to do with having a system that is entirely self contained, but rather a system that can describe the fundamental forces simply. Your assumption that a conscious being must be the external observer seems kind of ridiculous to me, and is a giant jump. You might as well be Descartes with his cogito ergo sum, ergo deus. What a ridiculous notion.

    • December 23,2009

      Perry @ 9:58 pm

      A system that describes the fundamental forces simply is still a system, and still subject to Gödel’s theorem.

      You’re welcome to challenge any specific statement I have made. I maintain that everything I have said here is 100% logical and that the conclusions follow naturally from the premises.

  7. December 29,2009

    Mark Widawer @ 3:17 pm

    Perry,
    I thoroughly enjoyed your article, and the mental, logical, and theological exercise it plays in. There’s nothing like hangin’ out with smart people to make you smarter.
    So frankly, with all the smart people you attract, I’m surprised no one’s mentioned this…
    Just as “I am lying” is a paradox, so is Godel’s theorem. All we need to do is draw a circle around all the things that Godel’s theorem applies to. Outside of that circle must be all the things that the theorem doesn’t apply to. Therefore, Godel’s theorem does not apply to all the things that Godel’s theorem applies to.
    Oh! (smoke coming from my ears) My head hurts!
    Is there a flaw in this application of Godel’s theorem?
    -Mark

    p.s. All my best wishes for a healthy, happy, giving and prosperous new year, Perry.

  8. January 12,2010

    Jorge @ 6:24 pm

    I loved the article until it stop being descriptive and tried to argument for the existence of god. You made some really big jumps there, pal.

    I liked your approach to explaining the existence of god, but you have to be honest with yourself.
    At least you are not the kind of christian who believes Jesus used to ride a velociraptor.

    cheers!

    • January 12,2010

      Perry @ 9:53 pm

      You’re welcome to explain exactly where, logically speaking, I made “really big jumps.”

  9. January 13,2010

    Derek @ 12:47 am

    It seems that you have grossly misunderstood Godel. There are actually two theorems.

    Number 1:
    “Any effectively generated theory capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete. In particular, for any consistent, effectively generated formal theory that proves certain basic arithmetic truths, there is an arithmetical statement that is true,[1] but not provable in the theory (Kleene 1967, p. 250).”

    Number 2
    “For any formal effectively generated theory T including basic arithmetical truths and also certain truths about formal provability, T includes a statement of its own consistency if and only if T is inconsistent.”

    (Pulled from Wikipedia.)

    These do not apply to all systems. They only apply to those that express arithmetic.

    • January 13,2010

      Perry @ 6:45 am

      If logic and arithmetic describe the universe, then Gödel’s theorem applies to the universe.

      If logic and arithmetic do not describe the universe, then scientific thought also does not apply to the universe.

      Everything I have said here is contingent on science and math being valid tools for studying the physical world. My conclusions here are therefore as valid as the practice of science itself.

      I do concede that the practice of science is based on, literally, FAITH, that the universe is rational. By the way, the notion that the universe is rational originally came from Judeo-Christian theology. See http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/faq/#christian

      • January 13,2010

        Derek @ 4:43 pm

        “Anything you can draw a circle around cannot explain itself without referring to something outside the circle – something you have to assume but cannot prove.”

        My point was that this is not what Godel’s theorems say at all. The theorems say nothing about having to assume the existence of anything outside the ‘circle.’ What you have done is taken a metaphor and extended it far beyond its bounds, and the metaphor was incorrect in the first place.

        • January 13,2010

          Perry @ 4:50 pm

          Derek,

          Quoting you, the theorem says:

          “…there is an arithmetical statement that is true, but not provable IN the theory.” (Emphasis mine.)

          This means that is axiomatic. It relies on an axiom, which is something you know to be true or have to assume to be true but which is unprovable. If it is consistent it is incomplete. Anything that proves its consistency is outside the statement. Therefore there is something outside the statement.

          • January 13,2010

            Derek @ 7:33 pm

            “This means that is axiomatic. It relies on an axiom, which is something you know to be true or have to assume to be true but which is unprovable. If it is consistent it is incomplete. Anything that proves its consistency is outside the statement. Therefore there is something outside the statement.”

            Perhaps some clarification will help. All formal systems are axiomatic. A proof is when you show some statement to be a result of the axioms. So such a statement cannot rely upon an axiom, per Godel’s theorem. Also you are assuming that there is something that does, in fact, prove it’s consistency, which Godel’s theorems do not assert.
            You also are confusing objects of language with the language itself. Just because parts of the universe can be described by mathematics, does not make the universe a formal system. It’s like calling a chair a noun. ‘Chair’ is a noun, but a chair is not; only words can be nouns.

            • January 18,2010

              Perry @ 7:38 pm

              Derek,

              If you don’t think the universe can be accurately described by mathematics – and that it is not a formal system – you are free to take that position. At the same time you are then taking a position that science is a questionable endeavor.

              If a statement is a result of an axiom then it relies on the axiom. And this is what Gödel is saying.

              Rolling with your chair analogy, I am not saying a chair is a noun. I’m saying that a chair is an object. The word “chair” is a noun.

              In mathematics, all systems rely on axioms – assumptions which must be taken to be true but cannot be proven.

              If the universe is a formal system then the universe similarly relies on *something* which must be taken to be true but cannot be proven. And the thing that the universe relies on is a something, not a nothing. Therefore the universe is not the only thing that exists. There is something outside the universe which is not a system.

  10. January 24,2010

    ChrispyK @ 12:23 am

    Wow, thought provoking post. It’s not often that I see proofs of Gods existence of such high quality. That said, I’m curious to know how your take on two points that didn’t quite jive for me.

    First, does Godel’s Theorem apply to itself? Can it truly ever be proven, if it’s making assumptions that it can’t prove? If it can, then the theorem is proven useless, and if it can’t, then how can anything in the universe ever be proven? (If nothing can be proven, what evidence for a god could we have?)

    Secondly, using the circle analogy, if there is something outside of the largest circle that it is possible to draw, then that something must be infinite. If it is infinite, then it is everywhere. If it is everywhere, how has evaded detection of scientists for so very long? If a creator is boundless, then science must have found evidence of its existence, and if not, it could be encompassed by a circle. Paradoxical…

    Again, thanks for a well thought-out post.

    • January 29,2010

      Perry @ 5:55 am

      Gödel’s theorem does rely on assumptions you cannot prove, in the sense that Gödel expresses his theorem in Peano axioms, a mathematical system which is not provable within itself. Incompleteness is proven in the same way that geometry proofs are proven. It is 100% consistent with all that is known.

      God IS everywhere. Judeo-Christian theologians have been saying that for 4000 years. Why does God evade detection? Because God is immaterial and we can only detect material things with the scientific process. But God is inferred in innumerable ways.

  11. January 27,2010

    Matt @ 7:40 pm

    Dire misunderstanding of Godel’s theorem. It was all going so well until you took the metaphor you’d constructed around the maths and tried to apply it to the universe. As another commenter has said, the theorem applies only to mathematical systems. Specifically those systems that are complex enough to derive arithmetic from.

    The real “incompleteness” is that when working with the axioms of those specific formal systems, you will find there are either things that are true that you cannot prove, or things that are paradoxical that you can prove – the system is either incomplete or inconsistent.

    You insist on saying that the universe must be a formal system for it to be described by science, the truth is that science describes the world _using_ various formally phrased “laws”, but the universe itself is the “outside of the circle” (outside of our descriptive system) to point to in this case.

    Our formal systems don’t define the universe; they’re a best approximation to what we observe, and the self-justifying element at the foundation of it all is the bald fact of the way things are. Reality doesn’t derive from axioms, it just is what it is, and because of that it doesn’t in any sense match up to what the Incompleteness Theorem was about.

    • January 28,2010

      Perry @ 9:22 am

      Matt,

      Gödel’s theorem applies to everything that reason and logic apply to.

      No, our formal systems don’t define the universe, they describe them.

      If the universe is complete it is inconsistent and thus not amenable to scientific analysis.

      If the universe is consistent and amenable to logical analysis, then it is incomplete and therefore contingent on something.

      I vote in favor of science. IF the universe is scientifically, mathematically and logically describable, then God exists.

      You are welcome to reject the God proposition. In so doing you also reject reason and logic and science.

  12. January 28,2010

    Matt @ 2:22 pm

    “Gödel’s theorem applies to everything that reason and logic apply to.”

    No, I believe you’ll find that it applies strictly to axiomatic mathematical systems; “Any effectively generated theory capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete. In particular, for any consistent, effectively generated formal theory that proves certain basic arithmetic truths, there is an arithmetical statement that is true, but not provable in the theory”

    So if you start with a set of mathematical axioms, and those axioms are sufficient to express arithmetic, then it is also true that your system is either incomplete (there are truths that it can’t prove) or it’s inconsistent (you can prove things that are contradictory).

    Now say it with me, the universe is not an axiomatic system of mathematics. There are no axioms of the universe, and hence no logical derivation of other propositions from the universe and no Incompleteness.

    Empirical derivation of propositions, maybe (although that’ll run the risk of simple observational error), but I can’t repeat enough; the universe is not a system of formal logic. Further, it has no need to prove itself by formal logic – the universe just is. Its nature is a simple fact, that to some extent we observe.

    I also take issue with your talk of “The origin of information”. The genetic ‘code’ is not symbolic and immaterial, it’s carbon-based chemistry. Not even very complicated chemistry to be honest. You claim that ‘information’ had to come from the ‘outside’, which seems to miss the fact that randomly combined nucleotides have just as much genetic information in them as the same length of useful DNA. The only difference is that genetic material that is conducive to its own replication will do just that, replicating more than other such material until it dominates.

    “All codes we know the origin of are designed by conscious beings” is a barely concealed circular argument. It fails on the count that genes are not real codes (they are molecules – talk of information being coded into them is a convenient shorthand for talking about their chemical properties) and even if I let that pass, it fails on the second count that you use the assumption of all codes being consciously designed to argue that a specific code is consciously designed without any further evidence for your position.

    “Naturalism is the hypothesis that the natural world is a closed system, which means that nothing that is not part of the natural world affects it. If you know Gödel’s theorem, you know that all systems must rely on something outside the system. [..] Because the universe is a system, it has an outside cause.”

    Once again, the natural world is not an axiomatic system, and hence not something that Godel’s theorem is applicable to.

    • January 28,2010

      Perry @ 2:54 pm

      Matt,

      Any system of logic (boolean algebra for example) is always definable in terms of axiomatic mathematical systems.

      You are free to reject the idea that axiomatic mathematical systems accurately model the universe. But in doing so you are rejecting the very premise of science, which is that the universe is weighable, countable, measurable, and that the activities of matter and energy conform to reason and logic and mathematical formulas.

      The pattern in DNA is a code. All you need to do to verify that fact is read a biology book very carefully. Study the history of the genetic code. Discover for yourself why GGG=Glycine and AAA=Lycine etc etc.

      The clearest explanation of this in my book collection is by Hubert Yockey. He says: “Information, transcription, translation, code, redundancy, synonymous, messenger, editing, and proofreading are all appropriate terms in biology. They take their meaning from information theory (Shannon, 1948) and are not synonyms, metaphors, or analogies.” (Hubert P. Yockey, Information Theory, Evolution, and the Origin of Life, Cambridge University Press, 2005) http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0521802938?ie=UTF8&tag=httpwwwperryc-20&linkCode=as2&camp=1789&creative=390957&creativeASIN=0521802938

  13. January 28,2010

    Matt @ 3:27 pm

    “Any system of logic (boolean algebra for example) is always definable in terms of axiomatic mathematical systems.” Agreed, but I don’t see the relevance.

    “You are free to reject the idea that axiomatic mathematical systems accurately model the universe.” I didn’t, I rejected the idea that the universe itself is an axiomatic mathematical system.

    To put it in your terms, the reason we can model the universe with logical systems is that we have an actual universe “outside of the circle” to “point to”. (Quotations used to express the fact that I dislike the terminology; it’s an oversimplification of the theorem and makes it too easy to misapply it)

    The universe as we know it acts as the ultimate axiom – if the model contradicts the universe, we know the model is wrong. It may be that some physical ‘laws’ that we think are true turn out to be incomplete or inconsistent in their description of the universe, but that means we need an improved model, not that the universe needs some external factor to be explained.

    As for genetic codes, it’s as I’ve said; even if I accept that it is a true code, you don’t have a valid argument. Saying that all known codes have a conscious origin, and that therefore a specific code has a conscious origin, is specious reasoning. To prove that all codes have conscious origin would require you to prove that genes have a conscious origin, which you have not done.

    I can accept Yockey’s assertion that “the origin of life is the founding axiom of biology” — biology being the study of life it doesn’t make a great deal of sense to talk about pre-biotic biology.

    Pre-biotic chemistry is another matter though; chemistry and physics do not depend in any sense on the existence or origins of life, and we can very usefully study the precursors of life in the form of non-living organic chemistry, and theorise on how such chemicals might become self-replicating and come to form something we recognise as living.

    • January 28,2010

      Perry @ 9:05 pm

      Matt,

      The relevance of my first comment is that Gödel’s theorem applies to all things that are defined as systems.

      You are rejecting the idea that axiomatic mathematical systems model the universe. You are free to do that.

      But if math does accurately describe the universe, then the universe is just as axiomatic as the math that describes it.

      The universe cannot be the ultimate axiom if you believe in cause and effect. The universe came into existence 13.7 billion years ago. Something had to cause it.

      You are of course free to reject the principle of cause and effect. That is your decision.

      If we were to build a mathematical system that perfectly describes the big bang, it would rely on some initial conditions and axiomatic statements that are not provable inside the system. Therefore if we accept the principle of cause and effect, the universe is contingent on something outside itself.

      My statement that all known codes have conscious origin, therefore a specific code has a conscious origin, is not specious. Perhaps this conclusion is bothersome to you, but it’s straightforward inductive reasoning. You can choose not to accept that. If you reject it then you reject induction which is the basis of most scientific propositions. My statement is just as reliable as gravity and entropy. For example, the assumption that the law of gravity is the same 10 billion light years away as it is here is not proven and probably not provable either. (Formally speaking it is not provable at all.) We assume gravity is a consistent law based only on induction.

      Self replication requires a code to exist first, as John Von Neumann determined in his papers on self-replicating machines in the 1960′s. All codes we know the origin of are designed. Therefore we have 100% inference that the genetic code is designed and 0% inference to any other explanation.

      We understand codes every bit as well as we understand gravity. Maybe better. We create codes all the time. We can’t create gravity. Thus any conclusion other than “DNA is designed” is specious.

  14. January 29,2010

    Matt @ 12:11 pm

    “The relevance of my first comment is that Gödel’s theorem applies to all things that are defined as systems.”

    Mathematical systems and logical systems that are equivalent to mathematical systems, yes. I have never denied this. But the universe is neither; it’s a physical system. It doesn’t derive from axioms, it can’t be used to derive propositions, it doesn’t fit the bill.

    The closest you can come to ‘deriving a proposition’ from the universe is to observe its behaviour and formulate a mathematical statement to describe that behaviour. Maybe the model is subject to Incompleteness but, as you’ve said, that just means it needs something outside of the model to serve as an unproven given. The thing outside the model is the universe’s actual observed behaviour. We can take that as an absolute axiom with respect to what our models should predict.

    “But if math does accurately describe the universe, then the universe is just as axiomatic as the math that describes it.”

    The model has, as far as we know, been accurate up until now. I don’t take that as absolute/unshakeable proof that the universe will always be consistent with our predictions. If the two things diverge we’ll need to come up with a new model because they remain two different things. Using an axiomatic model to describe a thing, however accurately, doesn’t make that thing, itself, axiomatic.

    “The universe cannot be the ultimate axiom if you believe in cause and effect. The universe came into existence 13.7 billion years ago. Something had to cause it.”

    I’ll take this seriously when you can convince me that a) your god doesn’t equally require a cause and that b) the universe (or some n-dimensional ‘higher’ universe) can’t be self originating in the same way as you propose that god is. If you’re going to restate the Cosmological argument, I feel quite happy using the age old objections to it. (If you manage the first one, you’ll still need to prove that your first cause has any attribute other than uncausedness. I know you think you’ve done that, you even put it bold, but that’s a whole other argument to have).

    You don’t appear to have fully comprehended my point on the subject of “all known codes have conscious origin, therefore a specific code has conscious origin”. There’s no denying that the former implies the latter, but your argument is backwards – to boldly assert something about “all codes” you first need to prove that thing true of each specific code without reference to anything being true of “all codes”.

    To put it shortly, “all known codes have conscious origin” is dependent on each specific code having conscious origin, so when you introduce “all known codes have conscious origin” to your argument about a specific code, you’re implicitly assuming that which you’re trying to prove. It’s not “straightforward inductive reasoning” at all, just partially obscured circular reasoning.

    As a sidenote, I’m curious; why is a piece about Godel’s Incompleteness Theorem on a site that’s otherwise about Google-based marketing?

    • January 29,2010

      Perry @ 4:03 pm

      Matt,

      Postulate: IF the universe conforms to reason and logic then it is subject to Gödel’s incompleteness theorem.

      The universe is finite. It came into existence 13 billion years ago. How could it give birth to itself?

      I think the burden of proof is on you to show that the universe CAN be self-originating.

      You can resort to an infinite regress of universes, but philosophers almost universally reject infinite regression as an adequate explanation of anything.

      I cannot prove to you that God doesn’t require a cause. I can only point out that at some stage in the past there is a necessity of an uncaused cause. The universe is not its own uncaused cause because everything physical is subject to causality. If you have empirical evidence to the contrary you’re welcome to present it.

      All codes we know the origin of are either direct derivatives of DNA (RNA, bee waggles, viruses, dogs barking, pheremone trails, animal instinct) or else they are created by conscious beings making deliberate choices (zip code, morse code, bar code, TCP/IP, every single file on your computer).

      My reasoning is not circular. It begins with an open question of not knowing where the genetic code came from and observing closely how all other codes came into being. The process of creating codes is well-known branch of science taught in CS departments in major universities all over the world. There is no other known process for creating codes besides sentient beings making conscious choices of symbols based on desires and priorities. DNA reflects all the same kinds of choices, from the 4-letter alphabet to the most complex genetic transpositions.

      If you examine them closely you’ll find that all arguments that DNA is not designed are in fact circular. I have a much more complete presentation on this at http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/ifyoucanreadthis.htm

      I really comes down to this: If you hypothesize that codes can occur naturally, then show me one empirical example that supports that hypothesis.

      Why an article about Gödel on this website? Because I’m interested in a lot more things in life than just search engines.

      Perry

  15. January 29,2010

    Jorge @ 1:05 pm

    You don’t have to prove scientifically that god exists. You can just be faithful, its a more gracious way of being a believer than trying to push your opinions in a semi-literate way to everyone else…

    I recommend Soren Kierkegaard.
    Something out of context: ” Thus, faith is united with the truth by serving as the most extreme expression of subjectivity, and by representing the only manner in which the existing individual can accept paradox.”

    http://www.schoolbytes.com/summary.php?disp=term&id=234
    Check this site, i haven’t read it all, but it could be helpful to everyone like you. In some way, a more complex way you’re trying to do what every silly creationist tries to do in a more naive way, that is, trying to push a belief into science.

    Sorry for the errors, english is not my first language.

  16. January 29,2010

    wm1 @ 6:19 pm

    I think you are putting god outside the circle boundary everything that is real;)

  17. January 29,2010

    Matt @ 9:02 pm

    “My reasoning is not circular. It begins with an open question of not knowing where the genetic code came from and observing closely how all other codes came into being.”

    Allow me to analogise for a moment. Imagine I were to examine all of the cats I could lay my hands on, I would find that to an animal they would all have tails. I might hence conclude that all known cats have tails, and thus that I believe all cats to have tails.

    Then someone presents me with a Manx cat, to which my response is that we already know that all known cats have tails, so this cat must also have a tail. I think you are committing the same flaw of reasoning; hasty generalisation.

    All human designed codes have conscious design. That much is tautologically obvious. The other class of ‘codes’ we have are those in the natural world. We know of no designer for these things, and it is faulty reasoning to conclude that because “all known codes” (excluding the natural ones under consideration) have conscious design, that the codes of the natural world must also have conscious design.

    I submit, that the codes of the natural world, be they genetic, bee waggles, or any other, are the results of what I will term unconscious design. Brought into being by blind processes with no intent, no thought, no goal and no consciousness.

    I’m talking about, of course, evolutionary processes. Amino acids form spontaneously under a variety of conditions, RNA strands have been found to assemble, using cyanide or the checker-board patterns of charge in ice as a template. RNA is also known to be potentially self-catalysing, and self-replicating. Once we have replication (and mutation via faults in replication), we have evolution. Some RNAs go on to produce proteins and DNA, which turn out to be advantageous because they can improve the process of replication and help the RNA that produces them to dominate the available resources.

    That path may be hopelessly wrong; we may later find the evidence that shows it happened a different way, I entirely accept that possibility. But at the same time, having any plausible explanation that fits within the natural world without any awkward ‘nomological danglers’ hanging out is infinitely preferable to resorting to the supernatural as an ‘explanation’, because it does not really explain anything at all – no predictions to be made, no evidence to be found, no proof or disproof except the incredulous cries of “well how else could it happen”.

    In your other article you dismiss out of hand the idea of naturally occurring codes, without any reasoning presented beyond … well, actually I don’t see any reasoning except stating your position again in slightly different ways; “Chaos can produce patterns, but it has never been shown to produce codes or symbols.” is another example of your circularity – assuming the general case as a way to prove the specific case, when the general case is dependent on the specific case. Maybe chaos has been shown to produce a code, in the instance of naturally occurring codes. Nothing you can say about “all codes” can rule that out.

    [Sidenote: I would take exception to natural selection being characterised as chaotic; mutation is the only random step, everything beyond that is much more deterministic, except for true accidents of nature like the first carrier of a novel allele having the misfortune to be hit by a meteor or some such]

    If you could prove to me, without any reference to “all other codes” or other generalisations that are dependent on the specific cases, that DNA as an information carrying molecule could not possibly arise by natural processes, then I would be most impressed. (Note also, that stating “Information itself is a separate entity on par with matter and energy” as a premise, without some very strong supporting evidence for that extraordinary claim, will not get you very far).

    It’s late, I’m tired, but reply to this and the email notification will remind me to come back and say more about the universe as opposed to DNA.

    • January 29,2010

      Perry @ 10:02 pm

      Matt,

      Code is defined as a system of symbols for communication between an encoder and a decoder (Claude Shannon, 1948).

      Show me a naturally occurring code. Of ANY kind. Just one.

      • January 30,2010

        BB @ 12:35 am

        The problem is that you’ve defined DNA as a code. You were going on about cause and effect; DNA is a series of molecules (physical things) that act in concert to produce/maintain/whatever else (effect) creatures. It’s not a code; it’s a chemical reaction.

        Second, you are squirreled down in semantics in a big way. 13.7 billion years ago, we SUSPECT that the big bang occurred because that fits the available data. We suspect, but don’t know. You say that something must have caused it. I ask why?

        In university, I used the reaction/proaction argument to “prove” the existence of something beyond what we can know — i.e. if everything is a reaction, and you go back far enough, there was a beginning, therefore a proaction, therefore that energy or whatever it was…et cetera et cetera. But it doesn’t prove anything. Here’s why:

        1) I postulate that before the big bang, there was nothingness, and in that state of nothingness some energy (God?) acted on the speck that was our universe and caused it to explode into what we now see. I postulate it, but there’s nothing to indicate this is so. There’s no trace of this energy now, and there’s nothing to indicate it ever happened.

        or

        2) I postulate that the “universe” is an ineffably vast concept that can barely even be perceived by our fallible minds and senses, much less understood to any great degree.

        or

        3) I postulate that because thoughts are formed as words, and words can be traced back to some primitive articulation that was created by a fallible mind, all words are most likely wildly inaccurate at best, and completely fallacious. Therefore, any discussion about great concepts is like pissing into the wind. You feel good about yourself, you get it out of your system, but it ends up all over your face.

        If you accept the notion that we have an imperfect understanding of the universe, then you have to accept the notion that Godel himself was imperfect. You can’t state with equanimity that his imperfect theorem. based on a imperfect system, which imperfectly describes the universe can POSSIBLY be any type of legitimate proof for anything.

        You can say that it is a logical confirmation of something you would like to believe anyway. But I can say (more accurately) that what we think of as logic, is most likely flawed, inaccurate and wrong. It’s simply the best system we have, to date.

        • January 30,2010

          Perry @ 8:34 am

          BB,

          The definition of DNA as code is the most fundamental definition in all of biology. If you want to throw everything we know about genetics in the dumpster, that is your choice. But a more anti-scientific statement could hardly be uttered. I can only urge you to study the history of the genetic code and find out why the pattern of base pairs in DNA is, in fact, a literal code.

          Your (1) is actually quite reasonable, and most importantly, pretty much matches the data we have on hand. But it still requires an antecedent event, namely an External Agent.

          Your (2) avoids (1) in favor of irrationality. It abdicates to confusion. It discards reason and logic. Which in my opinion is a huge step backwards. It tosses 3000 years of philosophy and mathematics in the dumpster.

          Now what I want you to notice is that your (1) and (2) summarize Gödel’s theorem perfectly. Either the universe is consistent, in which case it is incomplete (God is necessary). Or else the universe is complete (no God necessary) but therefore inconsistent.

          In other words if we take God as axiomatic, reason and logic and science are allowed to proceed. Then we successfully assume that we can study the universe and learn more and more. If we exclude the possibility of God then we have no choice but to assume the universe is an ineffable mystery.

          Correct me if I’m wrong but you appear to be saying, “You just gave me a logical set of statements that show the necessity of God. I prefer illogic.”

          I would invite you to open yourself to all the different possibilities and simply follow the evidence where it leads.

          Your (3) is an epistemology that we would expect Darwinism to produce. If we are the result of nothing but random copying errors filtered by natural selection, then we have no reason to suspect that our minds can accurately model the mysteries of the universe. If, however, living things have been purposefully programmed, we might rather expect that we were designed to comprehend our creator.

          • January 30,2010

            BB @ 9:10 am

            No, that was not was I was saying. My postulates were all statements that were equally valid (they have nothing physical to support them but they are logically sound). Any one is as likely as the other.

            With regard to my (1), it does not ‘pretty much match the data on hand.’

            Do you know what the scientific consensus is for what happened “before the big bang?”

            We don’t know.

            Either the universe itself has always been, or it’s cyclical, or there is God, or the big bang never even happened, or or or…

            There is problem in saying things with certainty when there are so many unknowns and barely-knowns. But here’s one thing that is known:

            Godel’s Theorem isn’t a scientific proof. It’s a thought experiment. It’s an observation about the mathematical system; but it’s a THOUGHT experiment.

            It wasn’t that Godel went out and, say, observed anything. He simply observed that, in terms of arithmetic, there were unprovable assumptions made.

            The thing is, that assumption doesn’t necessarily hold true in a macrocosmic way. It’s like saying, “I’ve observed (x) about a piece of fruit, therefore (x) must be true about the supermarket, because the supermarket contains fruit.”

            It’s not necessarily true. People haven’t disproved his theorem because it’s a logically sound statement. But it doesn’t necessarily hold true as you scale up (similar to how Newtonian physics is true for a vast majority of all cases, but at extremes, it becomes inaccurate).

            If you want to dispute that by saying “logic is logic” or something similar, or dismiss this again by saying that I’m throwing out science, be my guest. But that’s not the case. Logic is a tool and not the bottom line. And science is filled with instances of microcosmic observations being true and macrocosmic observations being false (and vice versa).

            • January 30,2010

              Perry @ 9:25 am

              The universe cannot be cyclical because of entropy. Once a candle is burnt you can’t light it again.

              There is no such thing as a scientific proof. Science can only infer. It cannot prove.

              Gödel’s theorem is a mathematical proof. In philosophy, a mathematical proof is about as close to an absolute truth as we can get.

              Getting hit by a bus and dying is an absolute truth. But it’s not a scientific theorem, it’s just an empirical fact.

  18. January 30,2010

    BB @ 9:13 am

    Also, DNA is described as a code, but is certainly not DEFINED as a code. Similar to the way many people call every bit of music “songs.” It’s a convenient way to be understood, but it’s not the most accurate.

    • January 30,2010

      Perry @ 9:21 am

      BB,

      See “Information Theory, Evolution and the Origin of Life” by Hubert Yockey (Cambridge University Press, 2005) http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0521802938?ie=UTF8&tag=httpwwwperryc-20&linkCode=as2&camp=1789&creative=390957&creativeASIN=0521802938

      Also see http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/faq

      • March 26,2010

        BB @ 12:50 pm

        A code is a member of the class ‘symbols’. A first level symbol is a label which is used in place of the thing which it identifies. For example, suppose a building with a sign over the window which bears the word ‘pharmacy’. We can use the symbol ‘pharmacy’ in language as a symbolic substitute for any real pharmacy. Suppose now that we invent a slang term ‘pill-farm’ to mean ‘pharmacy’. We now have a secondary label ‘pill-farm’ which is a second-level symbol for ‘pharmacy’. ‘Pharmacy’ in its turn is a first level symbol for a real building of a specific type.

        By convention, a primary symbol is a name, but any secondary symbol is a code: a symbol which stands in place of another symbol. For purposes of clarification, I will give another example. ‘And so forth’ is a primary label or symbol for an idea. By converting it into Latin, a language spoken by few speakers of English, we encode it as ‘et cetera’. We now abbreviate it to ‘etc.’, a second level coding.

        A code is not a symbol. A symbol is not a code. A symbol stands in place of an object or idea. A code stands in place of a symbol: it is a symbol for a symbol.

        In computer instructions, we start with the simplest possible representations of what is going on inside a computer chip. We observe that a location in a computer chip can be at one of two voltages. Taking these voltages as our idea we invent symbols for the two voltages: ’1′ and ’0′. These are our primary symbols and they can only be written as binary expressions.

        As a convenience, we can use a form of abbreviation which is easier for humans to handle than binary. The most common such abbreviation is hexadecimal code, or hex. As an example, the binary 1010 0101 can be written as A5 in hex. Note that hex, being a secondary symbol level is a code.

        When dealing with binary as computer instructions rather than as numbers it is convenient to use mnemonic codes. It may be that the binary string 1111 0000 1100 0100, or F0C4 in hex, is an instruction to the computer core, expressed as F0, to jump to memory location C4, but only IF a previously computed result was non-zero. We can write that as a mnemonic code: JNZ C4.

        Such mnemonics are called assembly language. The ‘assembly’ part of the name comes from the fact that this mnemonic code needs to be assembled into a package of binary numbers in order for the computer to be able to use it as a program.

        DNA is a string of molecules. There are four main components: guanine, adenine, thymine and cytosine. Those names, the words ‘guanine’, ‘adenine’, ‘thymine’ and ‘cytosine’ are primary symbols invented by humans to identify the physical molecules which are found in DNA.

        For convenience, we often abbreviate these symbols to CAGT, so that we can more readily handle the huge volume of data which we have accumulated about DNA. Please observe: there exists a long molecule of a type which we label DNA. It has four major components to which we assign symbols as names. We next assign symbols to the name symbols as an abbreviating code. We humans have agreed to assign the four letters CAGT as a code for the symbols which in turn stand for the molecular components of DNA.

        A code is a symbol which stands in place of a symbol. The four letters CAGT most definitely form a code, being symbols for the names of the four major components of DNA. The names guanine, adenine, thymine and cytosine are not codes: they are primary symbols. Primary symbols stand for real things and not for symbols. The real physical entities guanine, adenine, thymine and cytosine are not codes. If anyone wants to call them codes, let them point to the symbols which might be replaced by these ‘codes’.

        A computer code is a set of numerical values sufficient and necessary to the production of an end state from an initial state.

        DNA is necessary but not sufficient to the production of an end state from an initial state.

        To claim that computer code and DNA are both codes is an abuse of the power of words. It is decidedly not scientific.

        • March 26,2010

          Perry @ 2:14 pm

          Definition of CODE: 3a: A system of symbols for communication 4: Genetic Code (Webster’s 9th collegiate dictionary)

          • March 26,2010

            BB @ 2:23 pm

            Quoting Webster’s to prove that DNA is a code is about the weakest appeal to authority I have ever seen.

            It also shows that you didn’t even bother to read what I wrote.

            Appeal to authority is a classic fallacy that you’ve employed more than once by quoting specific authours and disagreeing with or ignoring others.

            • March 26,2010

              Perry @ 2:42 pm

              I am using Claude Shannon’s definitions as found in his paper “A Mathematical Theory of Communication” and Yockey’s definitions in his book “Information Theory, Evolution and the Origin of Life” by Hubert Yockey (Cambridge University Press, 2005) http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/0521802938?ie=UTF8&tag=httpwwwperryc-20&linkCode=as2&camp=1789&creative=390957&creativeASIN=0521802938. Both use the term code in the same identical way.

              The pattern formed by the four bases in DNA is a code in exactly and precisely the same way that TTL voltages in a computer are code, that magnetic domains on a hard drive are code, that pulses of light in a fiber optic cable are code, or pits on a CD-ROM are code. This is a standard engineering definition and usage of the term “code” and is universal in all literature on digital communications. Webster’s definition of code as “A system of symbols for communication” is 100% consistent with this usage. Again I quote Yockey (2005):

              “Information, transcription, translation, code, redundancy, synonymous, messenger, editing, and proofreading are all appropriate terms in biology. They take their meaning from information theory (Shannon, 1948) and are not synonyms, metaphors, or analogies.” (Hubert P. Yockey, Information Theory, Evolution, and the Origin of Life, Cambridge University Press, 2005).

              In this conversation I must insist on using standard engineering definitions that are universally accepted in scientific literature.

            • March 26,2010

              Perry @ 2:47 pm

              By the way if you want to argue about the definition of the word “code” then you need to be aware that whole conversation already happened four years ago, when my debate on the world’s largest atheist discussion board, Infidels, began. You can read all about it with links to all relevant conversations at http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/infidels. I’ll save you some time – you will get nowhere attempting to assert that the genetic code is a code by some strange definition that’s different than other contexts. Again, you can read the Infidels thread for an exhaustive discussion of the history of its discovery and why biologists have defined it that way for 50+ years now.

          • August 14,2010

            vijeno @ 2:13 am

            On http://cosmicfingerprints.com/iidb.htm, in reference to http://www.freeratio.org/showthread.php?t=135497&page=1, Perry Marshall comments that “For Three Years and counting, I have successfully advanced the Information Theory argument for Intelligent Design on Infidels, the world’s largest Atheist discussion forum.” and that “The discussion continued for more than 4 months and 300 posts. At the end, nearly all participants dropped out, having failed to topple my proof or produce any new objections that had not already been addressed.”

            This is a rather interesting spin on reality. Just to give folks a balanced perspective, here are actual numbers taken frum just that discussion thread:

            Start of thread: August 30, 2005, 06:00 PM
            Total number of postings: 1398
            Total number of postings by user pmarshall (on ALL of freeratio.org): 26
            Last posting on thread: March 10, 2010, 05:56 PM
            Last posting by user pmarshall: October 26, 2008, 09:17 PM

            I’m leaving the conclusions up to the learned reader.

  19. February 3,2010

    tim @ 12:00 am

    you are using a theorem within a system to explain something beyond the system. whut

    using something we know to describe something which we cannot know is just faith. you jump from logic to faith when you use the incompleteness theorem to make a logical induction about something beyond “everything”. you “believe” that it applies to something beyond “everything”.

    in other words: beyond the scope of the universe you cannot with certainty apply knowledge that is within the universe (otherwise it would be describable by the universe and therefore part of it)

    • February 3,2010

      Perry @ 5:19 pm

      Tim,

      What you’re really describing is the inherent problem of induction. Induction can give you only so much specificity; that’s why when you apply Gödel’s theorem to “whatever is outside the universe” you get a list of what God is not, rather than a list of what God is. God is not material, not matter & energy, not time, not divisible, not a system. And by the way this list is remarkably similar to Aquinas’ 5 statements about God. This summary of Aquinas is from Wikipedia:

      Concerning the nature of God, Aquinas felt the best approach, commonly called the via negativa, is to consider what God is not. This led him to propose five statements about the divine qualities:

      1. God is simple, without composition of parts, such as body and soul, or matter and form.[60]
      2. God is perfect, lacking nothing. That is, God is distinguished from other beings on account of God’s complete actuality.[61]
      3. God is infinite. That is, God is not finite in the ways that created beings are physically, intellectually, and emotionally limited. This infinity is to be distinguished from infinity of size and infinity of number.[62]
      4. God is immutable, incapable of change on the levels of God’s essence and character.[63]
      5. God is one, without diversification within God’s self. The unity of God is such that God’s essence is the same as God’s existence. In Aquinas’s words, “in itself the proposition ‘God exists’ is necessarily true, for in it subject and predicate are the same.”[64]

      If you sift through every single element in both my Gödel article and Aquinas’ statements with a fine-toothed comb, you can verify for yourself that it is all 100% logical.

      One of the realizations that you come to is that God is “outside of” reason and logic. This at first seems disturbing until you remember that God is not divisible, God is not made up of “moving parts” and since reason and logic are about relationships between separate parts, this therefore does not make God illogical. It just makes God superior to logic by virtue of being One.

      Many people have said, “Logical statements cannot be made about God.” But that statement itself is a logical statement concerning God, therefore it is self-contradictory, therefore it is not true. Logical statements CAN be made about God. And the most logical statement you can make about God is:

      God IS.

      Thus it makes perfect sense that Jesus, who claimed to be God, said:

      “Before Abraham was, I AM.”

  20. February 3,2010

    tim @ 8:17 pm

    what youre saying is that the same rules of logic that apply within the universe apply outside the universe. you cant say this with certainty. the applicability of the theorem ends with the “edge of the universe” because it is based on logic of the universe.

    in short:The universe and not the universe are not the same. “Universal” logic cant apply to outside the universe by definition

    • February 3,2010

      Perry @ 8:26 pm

      Which specific rules of logic do you think do not apply outside the universe?

      For example:

      If we draw a circle around all the matter in the cosmos and say that there is no matter outside that circle, are you saying that’s not a true statement?

  21. February 14,2010

    starbucks @ 4:10 am

    Dear Perry,

    Thank you for the interesting read on Goedel.
    May I refer a small comment to your statement:

    “In 1931 this young Austrian mathematician, Kurt Godel,
    published a paper that once and for all PROVED that a single
    Theory Of Everything is actually impossible.”

    To my understanding Goedels incompleteness theorem can be
    stated in simple english as:

    A formal system of sufficient complexity is either
    or .

    I assume your above statement refers only to a contradiction-free systems,
    which is indeed incomplete according to Goedel. Am I correct?

    Well, my comment is the following:

    If you consider for a moment a contradictive system with the potential of completeness,
    would this not possibly allow the existence of a theory of everything? Of course
    such a theory would then include contradicitve statements…

    Here I do not want to think about such a contradictive system or discuss its
    usefullness. But refering to your above statement I would like to mention,
    that in my understanding of Goedel, there is the possibility of a single Theory Of Everything.
    Even so it would (according to Goedel) necessarily include contradictive statements.

    I might be missing a point
    or miss-understanding Goedel, but at least I do see this possibility of a contradictive theory.
    However I admit, that it might be never understandable by the human mind, because of its
    contradictions. Would be nice, if you could let me know your opinion on this comment.

    Thanks & Best regards,

    Starbucks :-)

    • February 16,2010

      Perry @ 2:57 pm

      Gödel is saying that if a system is complete, it is inherently contradictory. “This sentence is false” is a perfect example of a complete system that is contradictory.

      So yes a theory of everything is possible as long as it’s irrational.

      This is just an interesting way of saying that if we accept that the universe is irrational, then atheism might in fact be true. Atheism can only be true if the universe is irrational.

      Which is a very interesting conclusion, because the usual atheist argument is that religion is irrational and atheism is rational. Nobody prattles on and on about the superiority of their “reason and logic” more than atheists. Yes, if you are willing to be irrational then you can embrace atheism.

      • February 19,2010

        Starbucks @ 3:24 am

        Dear Perry,

        Thanks for your kind answer! I agree with you,
        I was just curious about the possibility of an *upside down* approach on Goedel theorem using a contradictory system that gains completeness.

        Best,
        Starbucks

  22. February 17,2010

    Matt @ 3:45 am

    So this is still sending me reminders… which is sort of useful; I’d forgotten about it. I wanted to jump back into the fray to say that you appear, once again, to be conflating the universe with our model of the universe.

    Let’s say I accept your premises (you know I don’t, but for the sake of argument) then the conclusion is that if we came up with a Grand Unified Theory, that described all the behaviour of the universe (was complete), then it would also be possible to derive a contradiction from that model, i.e. model a situation where our one model can be used to predict two (or more) mutually exclusive events.

    That is very much like self-referential statements like “This statement is false”, which tells you that the statement is both false and true at the same time depending on whether you take it at face value or think it through some more, and many other “paradoxes” where you look at it one way to get one result and then think through another line of logic to get a different, contradictory result.

    The difference with a model of the universe is that we can go and determine by experiment which of the contradictory results is the right one. The model may have included a contradiction as an artifact of being made complete, but we still have an external reference to go to – empirical observation of what really happens.

    I think I’m beginning to see that this is a little like the Cosmological Argument, dressed up for a new era in some slightly dodgy application of mathematics. If you’d allow me to paraphrase; “All systems must have something external to themselves, and an infinite regress of systems is impossible, therefore there must be a super-system with no external factors, and this all men call god”

    It’s a nice variation on the old ‘first cause’ or ‘unmoved mover’ arguments, but with the one tiny flaw that the universe is not a system of logical propositions. Godel said nothing about physical systems, and there’s nothing to stop a physical system (such as a universe) being self contained.

    Now I’ve been writing too long and made myself miss breakfast… must be off.

    • February 17,2010

      Perry @ 8:32 am

      Matt,

      As I have said to others, you are welcome to reject the idea that Gödel’s theorem applies to physical things. You are free to say the universe is not a system of logical propositions if you wish.

      The only problem is, you kick the legs out from under science itself when you do that. Because science assumes the universe is rational and mathematical and logical.

      If E really equals MC2 and if F really equals MA then Gödel applies to the universe and the universe is incomplete.

      And yes, you’re right, there’s that tired old old prime mover argument again. Reason and logic are troublesome things, aren’t they? Whether you approach the question from a physical cause and effect perspective, or an information theory perspective, or from a philosophical perspective of regression of causes, or via moral argument, or from a mathematical perspective, you keep running into the implication of an intelligent First Cause.

      If atheism is true, then the universe has to be irrational and illogical. You can choose to believe that if you want. But don’t accuse Christians of being illogical. This thread has been going for months and nobody’s shown any flaw in my logic.

      I choose reason and logic. They lead me to God and I accept that. I likewise invite you to follow the evidence wherever it leads.

  23. March 2,2010

    Hadi Al-Qahtani @ 3:19 am

    Your logic is very close to flawless. I very much liked this article, and honestly, impressed.

    However, I do have an issue. I haven’t checked on the formal proof of the theorem yet, but I’ll take your word for it. You have an unwarranted assumption in your argument.

    You assumed that whatever is outside the universe is boundless, and that is the assumption. If the universe is explained by something outside of itself, then that thing is also explained by something outside of itself, and this process would never stop, and we have an infinite amount of causes, and not one single cause. You have no clue or proof that suggests that we should assume whatever caused the universe cannot have a circle drawn around it. If the universe is any clue, circles will be drawn infinitely. Maybe the universe is part of a finite multi-verse that is part of a multi-multi-verse ad infinitum.

    In summary: You proved that every ring of the chain needs a ring ahead of it, but then you assumed the chain we’re connected to is infinite, which is in no way a given. Looking at the ring we are, I say it is more likely that this chain is simply infinitely long, with finite rings.

    • March 2,2010

      Perry @ 1:03 pm

      A process of cause and effect that never stops is called “infinite regression” and is almost universally rejected by philosophers. Look up “infinite regression” on Wikipedia for clarification and why that is not logical or acceptable. An ad infinitum scenario is not rational.

      If universe(s) are infinite, we have no evidence of them. Everything we know about cosmology says the universe is finite. And if the universe or even a past series of universes are finite, then they are incomplete and require a transcendent cause.

  24. March 2,2010

    Ben @ 2:37 pm

    Perry,

    Having done a rather extensive amount of research on the subject and having discussed the matter both with mathematicians and philosophers, the concensus is that you’ve extrapolated to beyond what Godel was doing in the first place.

    His First Incompleteness Theorem stated “Any adequate axiomatizable theory is incomplete. In particular, the sentence ‘This sentence is not provable.’ is true but not provable in the theory.

    What he discovered and formalized was –

    For any sentence s,
    (1) is in PROVABLE iff s is provable.
    Since the set of axioms is computably generable,
    so is the set of proofs which use these axioms and
    so is the set of provable theorems and hence
    so is PROVABLE, the set of encodings of provable theorems.
    Since computable implies definable in adequate theories, PROVABLE is definable.

    Let s be the sentece “This sentence is unprovable”.
    By Tarski (Undefinability of Truth Theroem), s exists since it is the solution of:

    (2) s iff is not in PROVABLE
    Thus
    (3) s iff is not in PROVABLE iff s is not provable.

    Now s is either true or false.
    If s is false, then by (3), s is provable
    This is impossible since provable sentences are true.
    Thus s is true.
    Thus by (3), s is not provable.
    Hence s is true but unprovable.

    Godel discovered that the sentence “This sentence is unprovable” was provably equivalent to the sentence:

    CON: “There is no with both and in PROVABLE”.

    CON is the formal statement that the system is consistent.
    Since s was not provable, and since s and CON are equivalent, CON is not provable.

    Thus –

    Godel’s SECOND Incompleteness Theorem:

    In any consistent axiomatizable theory (axiomatizable means the axioms can be computably generated) which can encode sequences of numbers (and thus the syntactic notions of “formula”, “sentence”, “proof”) the consistency of the system is not provable in the system.

    The theories of real numbers, of complex numbers, and of Euclidean geometry do have complete axiomatizations. Hence THESE THEORIES HAVE NO TRUE BUT UNPROVABLE SENTENCES. The reason they escape the conclusion of the first incompleteness theorm is their inadequacy, they can’t encode and computably deal with finite sequences.

    So… it’s a mischaracterisation AT BEST to try to use Godel’s theorem to extropolate the existence of god because, if math and science is correct, which we have every reason to believe, our universe HAS NO TRUE BUT UNPROVABLE FACTS. The notion of science is that at some point, everything is explicable.

    And scene.

    • March 8,2010

      Perry @ 5:13 pm

      The problem with your argument is your final statement:

      “The notion of science is that at some point, everything is explicable.”

      Gödel shows that if it is explicable (consistent) then it is necessarily incomplete.

      Science itself is incomplete. It cannot explain itself. Historically, science came from the theological proposition that the universe operated according to fixed, discoverable laws. Believe in God was necessary for science to even get off the ground. More at:
      http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/faq/#christian

      • March 15,2010

        Ben @ 2:47 pm

        Perry,

        You could take away the final statement and you’re still left with the one before it as a problem with your argument:

        “…if math and science is correct, which we have every reason to believe, our universe HAS NO TRUE BUT UNPROVABLE FACTS.”

        Science is based on the assumption that the universe is complete in and of itself. Similar to the way Euclidean Geometry, real numbers and complex numbers are not subject to Godel’s Theorem; if the universe is a complete system, it too is beyond the scope of Godel’s theorem.

        Godel’s theorem deals with the paradox inherent in an incomplete system. It doesn’t deal with labelling complete systems incomplete and then ipso facto, there’s something outside the system.

        • March 15,2010

          Perry @ 2:54 pm

          Ben,

          Science does not assume that the universe is complete in and of itself. In fact science makes all kinds of unprovable assumptions, such as the assumption that the universe is logical.

          You cannot truly prove that, you can only demonstrate that it’s a workable hypothesis.

          And I’m sorry but you’re mistaken, Euclidean Geometry, real and complex numbers ARE subject to Gödel’s theorem. That’s the whole point of the theorem. That every system of mathematics is incomplete.

          Syllogism:

          1. Gödel’s incompleteness theorem applies to all logical systems.
          2.The universe is logical
          3. Therefore the universe is incomplete.

          • March 15,2010

            Ben @ 3:04 pm

            Godel himself postulated that his theorem did not apply to Real and Complex number systems as they contained no paradoxical statements.

            Are you suggesting that you have a better understanding of his theorem than he himself did?

            In addition, science DOES assume that the universe is a complete system. It also assumes that the universe is describable. Science is based on all sorts of assumptions. Fortunately, SCIENCE ITSELF is an INCOMPLETE SYSTEM that depends on THE UNIVERSE for completeness.

            • March 15,2010

              Perry @ 5:52 pm

              I need you to quote Gödel’s exact statement regarding real and complex number systems.

              If the universe is logical, then the universe also is incomplete.

          • March 16,2010

            Arthur @ 12:27 pm

            Ben is right, Perry.

            Read “Gödel, Escher, Bach,” by Douglas Hofstadter for more on why real and complex number systems are not caught by Gödel’s Theorem.

            Gödel’s Theorem only deals with formulae derived from axiomatic systems of numbers.

            Basic addition cannot derive formulae. It is a complete system that can be proved in its entirety

            asin:

            You first define the symbols – In this case, they are the numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, and the two symbols + and =. Next we need to define our rules. In the case of addition, the rules are as follows:

            •All the basic results of adding two single-digit numbers together. e.g. 0+0=0, 0+1=1, …, 1+2=3, … 9+9=18. In other words, the basic addition table.

            •The rules of how to add together multi-digit numbers using the above rules. i.e. You start at the right-most digits, add those, determine if you need to carry a digit, etc.

            An important feature of this theory of addition is that you can then use the system to prove any statement of addition. “Prove” in this context has a very precise meaning. It means that you can take a statement written in symbols, like 79+3=82, and generate that sequence of symbols using nothing but the explicitly defined rules of the theory. How does one generate this sequence of symbols?

            The simplest method is to start with the numbers before the equals sign (79 and 3) and add them using our rules. That produces 82, and we know we can write the resulting sum as 79+3=82. That proves (using the rules of our theory) that the statement is correct. The important thing to note is that we are doing all of this merely by manipulation of symbols. We don’t have to think about, understand, or even know that there exist semantic meanings for these symbols. We don’t need to know that “79″ can mean a number of objects. In other words, we could teach this sort of addition to someone without explaining to them that the symbol “3″ means “three”.

            We can instruct a computer to do addition like this without the computer having any understanding of what it means to have three objects. All the computer is doing is manipulating a bunch of arbitrary symbols based upon a set of well-defined rules.

            If you set up a formal theory of mathematics correctly, you should be able to prove any true statement, and be unable to prove any false statement. This is true of our simple theory of addition. In fact, we can prove every true statement about the addition of two non-negative integers with nothing more than what I have described so far.

            To do this, perform the following steps:

            1.Start with two numbers 0 and 0; remember these. Work out the addition of these two numbers according to the rules of addition, and write the result (in this case: 0+0=0).

            2.If the two numbers we are remembering are equal, add 1 to the second number. But if the two numbers are unequal then check the second number: If it is not 0, increase the first number by 1 and decrease the second by 1. But if the second number is 0, set it equal to the first number plus 1, and set the first number back to 0.

            3.Work out: (first number)+(second number) and add that to our list of results.

            4.Return to step 2.

            This procedure works out the following sums in this order: 0+0, 0+1, 1+0, 0+2, 1+1, 2+0, 0+3, 1+2, 2+1, 3+0, 0+4, … Now, no matter what true statement of addition we can think of, say 75843+87249=163092, this procedure will eventually produce a proof that it is true. It may take a long time, but it will eventually get there. This is what the “computably enumerable” bit of Gödel’s theorem means: there is some procedure by which we can (eventually) generate any possible proof in the theory.

            For complete systems, Gödel’s Theorem does not apply. There are no contradictory statements.

            Not to mention this little bit of information:

            You said that philosophers reject the notion of infinite regression. I accept that.

            Philosophers also rejected the idea that Gödel’s theorem could apply even to the human MIND, much less the entire universe. So you extrapolated well beyond what philosophy and math had to say and you’ve made your own (inaccurate) syllogism.

            That’s fine. You’re welcome to your beliefs. Please just understand that your arguments are fatally flawed.

            • March 18,2010

              Perry @ 9:48 pm

              I’m not sure why you or Ben assert that Gödel’s relation to real or imaginary numbers then implies that the universe is not subject to incompleteness.

              You said, “Basic addition cannot derive formulae.” Science asserts that the universe operates according to a whole range of formulae. Gödel says, all formulae rely on axioms that cannot be proven within themselves. So I’m not seeing how you’ve escaped incompleteness.

              As for the mind, Alan Turing believed that the human mind was a Turing Machine and thus human brains are simply performing computation. Turing believed that free will is an illusion.

              Gödel believed that free will is real, that intuition and human thought is something beyond mere computation. Gödel also believed in God and he believed that human beings are spiritual creatures. As I understand, he starved himself to death to prove that he had free will that was not determined by the physics and chemistry of his body.

              I’m not aware that any philosopher has definitively proven one or the other to be right. So far as I can see it’s an unsettled question. It seems to me that this issue brings us right back to the age old mind/body problem in philosophy, and the question of free will vs. determinism.

              What do you think? Do you believe that you are a conscious volitional agent who truly has the ability to freely choose? Or do you believe that your own actions and beliefs are determined by a mechanical process?

        • March 18,2010

          Arthur @ 10:37 pm

          “I’m not sure why you or Ben assert that Gödel’s relation to real or imaginary numbers then implies that the universe is not subject to incompleteness.”

          Because you said that Gödel’s Theorem applies to all logical systems. Addition is logical. Gödel’s Theorem does not apply to addition. Therefore Gödel’s Theorem does NOT apply to all logical systems. QED

          “You said, “Basic addition cannot derive formulae.” Science asserts that the universe operates according to a whole range of formulae.”

          No. Science postulates formulae to explain the operation of the universe. The universe does not operate according to our formulae. Also, and more importantly, the UNIVERSE did not derive the formulae. We did.

          “Gödel says, all formulae rely on axioms that cannot be proven within themselves. So I’m not seeing how you’ve escaped incompleteness.”

          Gödel never said any such thing. He said, “When using an axiomatic system to derive formulae, it is possible to derive a formula within the system that is not provable using the system therefore the system is incomplete.” Again, we don’t use the universe to derive formulae. We use science to derive forumlae about the universe.

          “As for the mind, Alan Turing believed that the human mind was a Turing Machine and thus human brains are simply performing computation. Turing believed that free will is an illusion.”

          Yes, and many philosophers disagreed with him.

          “Gödel believed that free will is real, that intuition and human thought is something beyond mere computation. Gödel also believed in God and he believed that human beings are spiritual creatures. As I understand, he starved himself to death to prove that he had free will that was not determined by the physics and chemistry of his body.”

          All true, but you neglect to mention that Gödel didn’t use his theorem as an argument for God because he knew it did not prove the existence of God. Gödel instead built on the work of Descartes and Leibniz and tried to craft an ontological argument for the existence of God.

          “I’m not aware that any philosopher has definitively proven one or the other to be right. So far as I can see it’s an unsettled question.”

          Certainly. In fact, many things that are commonly accepted are frequently debated by philosophers. However, many many philosophers have rejected the notion that Gödel’s Theorem applies to the human mind simply BECAUSE of free will. Free will isn’t necessarily a consistent, axiomatic system, is their straightforward argument.

          “What do you think? Do you believe that you are a conscious volitional agent who truly has the ability to freely choose? Or do you believe that your own actions and beliefs are determined by a mechanical process?”

          This is a kind of straw man as it is so far removed from what we were discussing, but I was never one to shy away from answering. I believe in a combination of the two, of course. We make choices, certainly. But I also believe in chemical addiction, and chemical imbalance which skews our ability to make decisions and sometimes even prevents us entirely from executing free will.

          • March 22,2010

            Perry @ 6:25 am

            Arthur,

            I have a lot of thoughts about this. But first I would like you and/or Ben to reference exactly what Gödel said in regards to real and imaginary number systems being both consistent and complete at the same time, and exactly what Hofstadter said.

            Computable systems are deterministic. Free will is not computable, by definition not deterministic and not decideable in advance.

          • March 22,2010

            Arthur @ 8:49 am

            Perry,

            In “Gödel, Escher, Bach”, Hofstadter spends a number of pages discussing his arbitrary theory called “Typographical Number Theory” or TNT, “which is one attempt to represent all of math in an axiomatic way. I’m going to assume that TNT works–that is, assume that it really does encapsulate all of mathematics perfectly…And eventually, I’m going to be led to a contradiction.”

            He says, “…assumed that TNT is perfect, and proceeds from there to a paradox. In doing so, it crushes any system which makes similar claims of perfection.”

            He then spends the next several pages putting forth his system and discussing its incompleteness via Gödel.

            He addresses the sentence “Sentence G: This statement is not a theorem of TNT.”

            If sentence G is false, then it is a theorem of TNT. Then we have a valid theorem which is false, and the whole system falls apart.

            So it must be true. But if it is true, then it is not a theorem of TNT. Which means that “sentence G is true, but it is not provable within TNT.

            That is Gödel’s “incompleteness,” that TNT, although it may be perfectly consistent and always correct, cannot possibly prove EVERY true statement about number theory, there is always something which is true, which the system cannot prove. So we’re done!

            “Except that, as you may have noticed, this is totally ludicrous. After all, TNT makes statements about numbers, and sentence G is a statement about a statement (itself). So while writing a TNT-string for “100 is a power of 10″ might be very difficult, it seems reasonable to grant that it’s possible; but translating sentence G into TNT seems about as likely as yodeling in sign language.”

            He then spends the next several pages doing just that, however. He expresses G in terms of the system itself in a computable way and discusses Gödel all the while.

            also,

            Read about Torkel Franzen and specifically his book “Gödel’s Theorem: An Incomplete Guide to its Use and Abuse” ISBN 1-56881-238-8

            and also,

            http://www.ams.org/notices/200604/fea-franzen.pdf

            He spent most of his professional life speaking to common misconceptions or misapplication of Gödel’s Theorem.

            • March 25,2010

              Perry @ 10:07 pm

              Arthur,

              If your point or Ben’s point is to demonstrate that there is such a thing as a system that is both consistent and complete, I cannot discern that either one of you has successfully done so. When I get to the end of GEB’s chapter on TNT, he circles back to the conclusion that “Any system that is strong enough to prove TNT’s consistency is at least as strong as TNT itself.”

              Which is just another way of saying that to prove what’s inside the circle, you need something from a bigger circle.

              Where I differ with Hofstadter is where he concludes on p. 230 “and so circularity is inevitable.” That is a misrepresentation of what Gödel says and of the progression of his own chapter on TNT. Logic is not a huge set of circular propositions. It’s a progression of inductions that ultimately rest on axioms that are known to be true but are not provable.

  25. March 2,2010

    Chris @ 5:43 pm

    I think a significant problem with this discussion so far has been an ambiguity with the language used, which has meant a bit of back and forth with no real change in the arguments. There have also been some misunderstandings of Gödel’s theorem, which is understandable, as unless you have studied mathematics, analogies tend to obscure the strict meaning of it.
    Firstly we can agree that a non self-referential statement is either exactly true, or not exactly true. Secondly Gödel’s theorem refers to a set of statements, split into two groups, those we label “axioms”, and statements derived from those. The theorem essentially states that if the “axioms”, which are the statements we assume to be true, are true, then there are also other true statements that cannot be derived from those axioms, and that those axioms cannot be proven to be true without the addition of a new axiom. The corollary is that if a proof of the truth of the axioms is derived from the axioms, then the axioms are not true (in their entirety). I’m going to use a bit of an analogy for this next part, if you can forgive me for that, as I personally find analogies highly dubious. In mathematics sequences of numbers can be of particular interest, and these can be generated through formulae, or can exist independent of any formulae. Now what is particularly interesting is that for any finite sequence there are an infinite number of different formulae that can generate the same sequence, so when attempting to find the formula for generating a sequence you may have found one that matches all available data, yet not be the correct one. I guess that wasn’t particularly an analogy so much as a cut-down version of universal laws, however that is not the point I am aiming to make. Within this analogy the universe is the sequence of numbers, the formulae which determines it’s behaviour are the laws of the universe, and our estimation of the formulae are our current laws of physics. Now the point that Matt was making, and perhaps you misunderstood, is that the sequence of numbers, and the formulae are different things, he was not arguing that Gödel’s theorem did not apply, merely reminding you that it only applies to sets of statements i.e. the formulae, not the sequence, the laws of the universe, not the universe itself. He is not arguing against logic, merely stating that you have applied it in the incorrect place. Now as it happens I am an atheist, I believe that there is no God, however I am not so presumptuous as to claim it as a certainty, indeed I do not believe it is possible to know whether or not there is a God. I am merely arguing that this particular path of logic is invalid.
    With regards to causality, it can be broken down fairly simply, either everything requires a cause, in which case a being without cause does not exist by definition(granted this does not forbid a being with a cause which created the universe from existing), or not everything requires a cause, in which case the universe does not demand the existence of a God without cause(although one is possible). With regards as to codes, we really need to clarify what you exactly mean here in your argument, as if you define a code to be a message intended to send information, then all codes are the work of sentient minds merely by definition.

    • March 8,2010

      Perry @ 5:24 pm

      Gödel’s theorem is about systems of logic.

      I cannot prove that the universe is a logical system. However, the assumption that it is is the cornerstone of modern science. If the universe is logical then it is also incomplete.

      I define communication systems per Claude Shannon’s 1948 paper “A mathematical theory of communication” which applies to things like telegraphs, CD players, computers, cell phones, etc.

      All communication systems we know the origin of are designed. No known exceptions.

  26. March 2,2010

    Bob @ 6:22 pm

    Sorry but ‘god’ must also have something ‘outside its circle’

    Godel proved that you cannot have a god which explains himself.

    Atheism also says that.

    NOTHING can understand it all. God CANNOT exist.

    • March 4,2010

      Perry @ 1:50 pm

      Bob,

      If NOTHING can understand it all, how is it that you can then say “God CANNOT” exist?

      As for your first statement, you don’t appear to have followed the logic of my argument. You need to substantiate your statements with logic.

  27. March 3,2010

    Brandon @ 2:57 am

    Yea, so I have no problem with your logic in saying that “god” exists, but I do have a problem with the assumption that this god is the christian god. Every logical proof of “god” simply defines god as something undefinable. That does not, in any way, mean that the christian god is the god that created the universe. Religion is made up to answer unanswerable questions (or at least unanswerable at the time of its inception) and as a means of social control, and to give hope, and meaning and blah blah blah.

    Also, almost every response you’ve made to people goes along the lines of, “If you think that, you obviously reject science and are an idiot.” Not very classy….

    But, yeah, christians are illogical for saying the god of the bible is the god that started the universe. The only conclusion you can come to is that something must have started the universe, assuming Goedels theorem applies (which, as has been stated, really doesn’t apply to the universe, go ahead and tel me I’m an idiot for saying that, it’s fine).

    Also, I would like to question, what is the significance of all of this? Does if affect anybody in anyway? I really don’t think it does. I’m just bored and want to get into this heated discussion, heh.

    I’m sorry for my choppy/poorly thought out comment. ADD is not my friend this night.

    • March 4,2010

      Perry @ 1:49 pm

      Look out your front door. Turn on your TV. Look at this discussion thread.

      I invite you to answer your own question:

      Does the truth about God – do claims about God – affect anybody?

      • March 4,2010

        Matt @ 6:05 pm

        Still getting those email reminders every so often… odd that they don’t seem to come through for all the replies, but then I suddenly get 10 at once. Oh well. Wanted to reply to this specifically: “Does the truth about God – do claims about God – affect anybody?”

        If god existed and had a measurable effect on the physical universe, it would bring it under the purview of science – god would be like the force of gravity; observable, measurable, predictable. Maybe not so predictable as gravity, but we could reason about the effects of god on the universe.

        Funny thing is, we haven’t observed any supernatural effects on the universe; nothing that can’t be reduced down to naturalistic physical principles. So in a very real sense, the existence or not of god has no effect. If god does exist, he’s not doing anything with any noticeable effect, so why care?

        We tend not to believe in the existence of things with no observable effects though; that’s the only way to keep obvious absurdities like invisible goblins and Russel’s teapot out of our belief system.

        Another sidenote; your website remembers my name and email perfectly, but seems to have complete amnesia on the question of whether I want your “free mini-course” delivered to my email. It’s the strangest thing, almost as if you’re hoping repeat-commenters will eventually forget to untick the box and inadvertently sign up for your mailing. But of course you wouldn’t do a sleazy thing like that, so I’m sure it’s just a bug in the server.

        • March 4,2010

          Perry @ 7:56 pm

          Matt,

          We have observed supernatural effects in the universe. See http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/faq for a discussion on the lower half of the page. In any large public library you will find an entire section on documented cases of miracles. Just because they’re politically incorrect doesn’t mean they don’t exist. I describe my own personal experiences at http://www.coffeehousetheology.com/miracles

          Reason concerning the effects of God on the universe is a field known in academia as theology. I invite you to set aside the pejorative attitude and follow the evidence where it leads.

  28. March 3,2010

    Ben @ 9:37 am

    Interesting article, but Matt did a very effective job of demonstrating that the universe is a physical, actual system, not reliant upon abstract axioms to prove its existence.

    Sorry, but Matt is very clearly better informed on this issue. The language of the article oversimplifies the theorem so as to allow the author’s worldview to seem better justified. The comments made a nice read, though.

    • March 4,2010

      Perry @ 1:46 pm

      Ben, I have two questions for you:

      1. Is the universe logical?

      2. Can you name any law of physics that is not expressed as mathematical or logical statement?

  29. March 3,2010

    Bizzare @ 10:22 am

    I haven’t read all the replies above so I am probably repeating some people but below are the flaws or premises that I disagree with in your argument.

    1) You define God as what is outside the largest circle. As the number of circles is infinite it is meaningless to talk about the largest circle. Gödel’s theorem suggests that all things depend on something else, if a god exists and is subject to our laws of mathematics then it is no exception, therefore by use of modus tollens if a god is subject to our mathematics then it must be dependent on something else to exist.

    The existence of a god is not necessary to explain how something can be true despite depending on an infinite chain of assumptions. It is clearly wrong to say that because each natural number requires you to assume that there exists a larger natural number that there must be a god that is larger than the largest natural number. The natural numbers and, if Gödel’s theorem is true, the ever increasing circles that depend upon things they do not contain are infinite

    2) All codes must come from a conscious being. You are using a double meaning of the word code, its normal meaning is a message from one conscious being to another that has be altered to make it difficult for those who are not its intended reader to understand. DNA is referred to as a code because it contains information that is difficult to understand, the same could be said of many things that do not originate from a conscious being, pulsars (rotating neutron stars) are a simple example, we receive from them a brief burst of radiation which we can decode to gain information about the star.

    3) A being can be conscious, boundless and without cause. To me conscious seems to cause problems when combined with the following properties; if something is conscious then it is aware of itself, if it is boundless then there is an infinite amount of itself that it has to be aware of, information from its farthest edges would have to travel with infinite speed to cover an infinite distance in finite time. If it is without cause then it must have existed forever, over an infinite quantity of time a conscious being would go through an infinite amount of thoughts and would end up unable to think anything new and robotically repeat through previous states, this is not a contradiction but is probably not how most would think of a god. The same problem occurs with an omniscient god as if truly omniscient it would know in advance what it was going to think and do and at the correct time would think and perform those actions like a robot.

    4) In what little of the comments you mention the Holy Trinity so I shall assume you are referring to the Christian God. This is where your argument really falls to pieces, you go from trying to prove the existence of a potential creator to the existence of three very specific Gods. There is nothing in your debate on Gödel that applies to the Christian Gods and could not apply to Ra the ancient Egyptian Sun God or to the thousands of gods that humanity has worshiped throughout history, or to any of the millions that I could invent, name and create a back-story for right now. Assuming that all other points I have made are false and your argument is sound you have still proved nothing other than a vague conscious being outside our universe that somehow proves some things in our universe to be true.

    Finally I would like to thank you for the excellent quality of the first part of you argument, it is one of the best explanations of Gödel’s theorem I have ever read, I apologize for the length of this piece but may add more if I think of anything else.

    • March 4,2010

      Perry @ 1:39 pm

      1. There is not an infinite number of circles, because the universe is finite.

      2. I am using the exact same definition of code for biology as I am for computers etc etc. This is explained in extensive detail at http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/information-theory-made-simple/ and elsewhere on my site. Pulsars are not digital commuication systems.

      3. You are defining an infinite being in terms of space but I clearly explained that God is outside of space and time and I explained the logic behind this with care in the article. Got is not matter, not energy, not space, not time. Information does not travel from one end of God to another in packets. Please go back and read my statements with care. Your statements about infinite amounts of thoughts are self contradictory since any infinite sequence by definition never repeats itself.

      4. The Trinity does not say there are three specific Gods. Please do not misquote me, and if you wish to critique the theology of the trinity then please avail yourself of theologians who have written about it such as Augustine, Aquinas, Jonathan Edwards etc. Or read exactly what I have written: That God is ONE and is in complete unity has three aspects: Self intent, expression of intent, and understanding of self.

    • March 4,2010

      Andrés @ 2:08 pm

      Bizzare:

      1- Assume the whole universe is just:
      The concept of the number 1.
      The concept of the number 2.
      The concept of sum.
      We can draw a circle around the whole universe and safely say that 1+1=2 without the need for external reference.

      2-I think not. You’re assuming that, using the same logic the article points as flawed (inductive reasoning). It reads “you cannot PROVE gravity will always be consistent at all times. You can only observe that it’s consistently true every time”, and while this logic can be used to reach some truth it can also lead to fallacies. It isn’t as safe to assume that all codes come from a conscious being as saying that gravity makes things fall.

      3- You’re just trying to say god exists
      4- You’re trying to hide the fact from #3.

      • March 8,2010

        Perry @ 5:20 pm

        1. If you say 1+1=2 you reference numbers and symbols which are outside the universe you just defined. In your own description you are standing outside of the universe. The whole thing still depends on you.

        2. Show me a naturally occurring code. Just one.

  30. March 4,2010

    Quinn @ 8:50 am

    The “unknown” agent outside the circle always somehow seems to point to one’s favorite religion or metaphysics (the immaterial vs. material). The true incompleteness perhaps lies in the symbolic, linear conceptions human understanding is stuck with. This theorem FALSIFIES it does not give positive verification to speculations or personal convictions. It is much too easy and sloppy to interpret the limits of understanding as reflected by our greatest proofs as an excuse for thought termination and to fill in the cosmology of the unknown and unreachable with all too human answers.

    As for “code” the human mind has a tendency to see patterns everywhere, even in vacuum energy. Using this as proof of supernatural intelligence (since these things are everywhere in the universe) violates the very theorem you are misusing (the circle would prove itself). Intelligence is itself recognized through quite finite and definable parameters that are always experienced well within the circle. If human intelligence and the tragic world of crude matter and its pointless replication and destruction are really some positive indication of what lies beyond, a perfect God would have to be exchanged for a perfect monster, which would have to “inductively determine” from the very cruelty of nature. A cruelty, by the way, which intelligence only seems to make MORE insanely devious, not less. God should do us a favor therefore, to remain an Impersonality.

    • March 4,2010

      Perry @ 1:44 pm

      Codes are not a subjective impression on the human mind, they objectively exist. DNA is decoded by the ribosomes whether we see it and acknowledge it and describe it or not.

      I suppose various people have tried to tell you that God is some kind of cosmic teddy bear, but you surely did not get that from me. Indeed, surely if nature tells you anything, it tells you that God can be wild and ferocious. If nature tells you anything about God, it also tells you that God can be soft, tender and beautiful.

      Open your eyes, look around you, and see.

      And as you do so, do not neglect to distinguish the difference between what God has created and what man has destroyed.

      I would invite you to open yourself to understanding God as God really is, and follow the evidence where it leads.

      • March 4,2010

        Matt @ 6:21 pm

        “Codes are not a subjective impression on the human mind, they objectively exist. DNA is decoded by the ribosomes whether we see it and acknowledge it and describe it or not.”

        Their physical reality is precisely why describing the process as a code is flawed. Take a symbolic system like writing, we take information from our thoughts and ideas and encode it into letters, words, sentences, all according to the rules of our language. None of these odd little squiggles on paper or a screen make any objective sense, the information can only be retrieved by conscious understanding of the symbols and the language.

        DNA is different; the chemical properties of the molecule are what allow a ribosome to take a string of DNA as a template for building a protein. The base pairs quite naturally have some affinity for each other, and amongst the millions of chance collisions between molecules in cell chemistry that lets the ribosome find the right strand of tRNA to pull an amino acid from to build a protein.

        I’m not a molecular chemist, so I don’t know every detail… but if I remember rightly I think the ‘affinity’ stems from the shape of the amino acid being conducive to the formation of hydrogen bonding. It’s not too horribly complicated but it’s been a long while since I’ve had cause to think about it.

        The important part is that it all happens chemically; the ribosome isn’t required to understand what it’s doing, it isn’t “decoding” the DNA in any real sense – it’s just a protein that reacts with DNA and RNA molecules in such a way that some other protein is formed.

        The defining difference is that our symbolic codes have no objective relation to the information they represent. Nothing really links the letter A to an “ah” sound, or any of our words to their meanings, except for our minds and the associations they store as language. With the genetic ‘code’ the DNA molecule and the protein synthesised are related by deterministic chemistry. You could decide to redefine a word, you couldn’t redefine a DNA sequence.

        • March 4,2010

          Perry @ 7:52 pm

          GGG is not Glycine, it is instructions for making Glycine. AAA is not Lycine, it is instructions for making Lycine. DNA has start bits, stop bits, error correction mechanisms, pointers, objects. CD players don’t “understand” what they’re decoding either but they decode just the same.

          If you want to debate this, you may do so on the Cosmic Fingerprints website. But you will need to do your research first – this ground has been thoroughly covered on my website for 4+ years now. See http://cosmicfingerprints.com/dnanotcode.htm, http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/faq. These definitions have been universal for 50 years.

          In short, you will get nowhere with this argument. DNA is just as much a coding system as your hard drive. In fact the list of similarities is long indeed.

  31. March 4,2010

    Legion @ 1:01 pm

    Perry,
    We think your main misinterpretation is that you believe Gödel’s theorem applies to the physical universe. You say, basically, that Godel’s theorem applies to science because science is made of logic. Therefore, science is either incomplete or inconsistent. We agree. But because humanity can change what it believes, science adapts to evidence to remain consistent. This leaves only the possibility that science is incomplete. We think you will agree with this.

    But you then say that Godel’s theorem applies to the Universe and/or Multiverse, because it can be described by science. Wait, didn’t We just say that science is incomplete? That would mean that science does not fully describe the Universe/Multiverse, and therefore is in some way wrong. So Godel’s theorem cannot apply to the universe, because we do not actually know it is a system. Even if we did, we would not know it’s limits.

    Additionally, Godel’s theory could be applied to itself if we use your ‘put something in a circle’ interpretation, which is wrong anyway. If we did this, it would prove itself wrong, meaning you entire argument is, in fact, invalid.

    • March 8,2010

      Perry @ 5:17 pm

      You need to pick an argument and stick with it.

      Gödel’s theorem does not prove itself wrong because his theorem is also based on axioms. For example the assumption that peano arithmetic is valid. He wrote his original proof in peano arithmetic.

      You’re right, science is also incomplete. No matter how much we know about science, if it is consistent it will require something outside of itself to verify its truth. There we go again – eventually we need Something that is outside the universe.

      Science ASSUMES that the universe is logical. It cannot prove this. If the universe is logical, it is incomplete.

      • March 26,2010

        Legion @ 7:01 pm

        You misunderstand. Science does not assume. If science were to say that an object will fall, due to gravity, at roughly 9.81 meters per second, minus the effect of friction from the air, there are no assumptions. Literally countless examples of evidence are available, and on the off chance that an object were to behave in a different way than expected, the scientific ‘laws’ we currently accept would adapt to include that to remain as accurate as possible. The thing that science depends upon is the Universe.

        Also, if the Universe is an axiomatic system that depends on a ‘god’ figure to have created it, the god would need a cause. Now, We know you will argue with this. But consider: If your ‘god’ created the universe, something must have happened to spur that action. And something must have spurred that, leading to an endless loop of logic. If we discard the endless loop, we come to the conclusion that your god is unchanging, having nothing to change it. An unchanging entity would not do anything other than what it is already doing, because it cannot change from that pattern. So the universe must have a cause, or not exist.

        • March 27,2010

          Perry @ 8:59 am

          From Dictionary.Reference.com:

          in·fer·ence (?n’f?r-?ns)
          n.

          1.

          The act or process of deriving logical conclusions from premises known or assumed to be true.

          (emphasis mine)

          Science INFERS that all objects on earth fall at 9.81 meters per second. Science infers that the law of gravity is the same everywhere in the universe. Science infers that the law of gravity was the same 1 million years ago and will be the same next year as it is now.

          An inference is indeed an ASSUMPTION that the specific can be applied to the general. You cannot deductively prove these things about gravity. You can only assume (HYPOTHESIZE), then do an experiment that confirms the hypothesis. A successful experiment is not a formal deductive proof. It is a confirmation of our own prior assumptions and a validation of inference as a way of knowing things.

          In this case, “knowing” is always provisional, because, as you say, if an object were to behave in a different way than expected, the scientific ‘laws’ we currently accept would adapt to include that to remain as accurate as possible. You are correct in putting the word ‘laws’ in quotations. Science is always provisional.

          You are assuming (there’s that word again) that because God’s nature is unchanging, that therefore nothing in God’s universe can change and that God cannot cause anything. That is a non-sequitur. You are conflating God’s nature with God’s actions. Let’s trace the logic:

          1. The universe must have a cause, or not exist – that much is true.

          2. The universe cannot be the result of an infinite regression of causes because that’s irrational. Also true.

          3. Therefore there is a first cause, which is without prior cause. That is also a logical necessity.

          4. Therefore the first cause caused all subsequent effects.

          5. Therefore the first cause is capable of causing things outside of itself.

          • March 27,2010

            Legion @ 6:50 pm

            Clearly, you have thought this through for more time and in more depth than We have. So, We will close with this statement: We wish for you to remember that deductive reasoning is worthless without conclusive proof, just as experimentation is worthless without reason to support the conclusions. Furthermore, a lack of evidence for either argument is not eveidence supporting the other argument. In fact, We agree that there is a god, We merely wish to be clear that all we can do is speculate. There is no proof in this debate, and so none of Us can ever truly be ‘correct’.

  32. March 4,2010

    Andrés @ 1:40 pm

    If you draw the biggest circle around everything, you’re not leaving anything outside, you have from the explainable to the unexplainable inside, it doesn’t matter if it can be explained or not, everything is inside thus there will be no need for outside reference.
    What this theorem seems to do is first to expose some really good logic, it certainly is right in smaller scales and/or when using the adequate example (the bike for instance), once it has proved that this reasoning can work it proceeds to use the same statement with everything else, assuming that if it worked there it must always work.
    I have to admit I was agreeing with it, but the part about inductive reasoning clearly reveals a flaw. While it is true that inductive reasoning can lead to mistakes, it isn’t the case every time, because you can prove things, even if you start looking at the facts from the inner circle. Gravity being of those provable ideas. You also have to keep in mind that some things, when explained or researched upon, give more questions than answers, and this is another issue used to support this Incompleteness theorem, but it’s just a part of the search for an answer, and raising questions helps to nothing but to better understand everything, the more questions the closer to the truth we get.
    I believe this theorem can be both flawed and perfect depending on the circumstances. And that it suffers from the same misuse of general relativity Once I had a very fiery discussion with a friend who said that everything, from matter and energy to concepts are relative, to which I replied that concepts can be constant, as units like 1 meter, the concept of 1 meter can not be relative, maybe the tool used to measure differs, maybe it has shorter centimeters, but the concept will not change under any circumstances. Perhaps this is the case.
    I want to finish saying that I don’t reject the idea, humankind will probably never discover the secrets of everything (I’d bet to 42 tho), but I had to speak up because I think that some of the logic in the article is somewhat off.

  33. March 5,2010

    graeme @ 3:48 am

    “* Whatever is outside the biggest circle is an uncaused cause, because you can always draw a circle around an effect.”

    while this may be true, you can also always draw a circle around the CAUSE…therefore the cause cannot be outside the circle

    “* All codes we know the origin of are designed by conscious beings.
    * Therefore whatever is outside the largest circle is a conscious being.”

    Oh, where to start? LOL
    1) Information is a thing…maybe not in the physical sense, but it still exists, and is therefore IN the circle.
    2)Just because all the codes THAT WE KNOW are the creations of conscious beings in no way shape or form implies that all codes must be such creation. It only suggests that there are codes that we are unfamiliar with.
    3)once again, if someTHING exists outside of the circle to generate information, or anything else for that matter, logic would dictate that you could then draw a larger circle that would encompass that creator as well

    If you want to make a logical argument, it usually helps to actually USE logic and not just tiptoe around it

    • March 6,2010

      Perry @ 1:11 pm

      Graeme,

      You will need to read the other responses to other posts in this thread. Every issue you have brought up here has already been addressed.

      • March 6,2010

        Matt @ 3:11 pm

        In a loose sense of the world “address”. You’ve diligently responded to all my comments, but I’m not convinced you’ve really given a satisfactory answer. I and others have asked you to demonstrate that DNA really is a consciously designed code, without appeal to “all codes are consciously designed”, and “DNA certainly is a code” (I could accept either one of those, but not both at once, depending on whether you take ‘code’ to imply conscious design by definition or not)

        Fundamentally, you can’t assert something to be true of all codes, then use it as proof about a specific case; to make the general statement requires the proof of the specific case. And yet, your own “proof” of DNA being designed by a mind follows as: (1) DNA is a code (2) All codes we know the origin of are created by a conscious mind. (3) Therefore DNA was designed by a mind.

        Point 3 simply does not follow from points 1 and 2. You’re effectively trying to establish the origin of DNA _from_ now knowing the origin of DNA. If you have a way to demonstrate the conscious origins of what I hold to be a naturally occurring code (or a non-code if you really want to assume code to imply conscious origin) then I’d love to see it, but I’m still waiting.

        (And before you ask) my proposed origin for the system would be a very rudimentary genetic molecule, likely to be RNA, synthesised by prebiotic chemistry and having just barely enough complexity to get a copy of itself made. Once that foundation is in place, mutation and selection over vast spans of time could arrive at the much more efficient system we see now.

        Oh, and I may have made the mistake I’ve been hoping I wouldn’t and just clicked submit with the little box ticked. (If this is a duplicate comment via double-submission, please feel free to delete the first) No matter, a little gmail-fu will sort that one out.

        • March 8,2010

          Perry @ 10:53 am

          New codes are created all the time. Recent examples from the last 20 years include PDF, HTML, DLL, JPG, MOV, DOC, XLS. Each of these is distinctly different from the others, using in some cases radically different coding structures. All of the above are stored / transported on dozens of different kinds of media including CD-R, hard drives, laser light, voltage pulses etc.

          If the question is stated as: “Is there a natural chemical process that produces codes? Or do we have reason to believe there is some sort of Intelligence behind biology” then Point 3 naturally follows from points 1 & 2. In science this is called inference.

          Please support your proposed origin theory with an experiment. Preferably an experiment that is not designed. The ideal would be an example of biogenesis from some “warm pond” somewhere.

          Or show me ANY code created from scratch by any process other than design. All you need is one.

  34. March 14,2010

    Mike @ 3:51 am

    1) All known plates are designed by conscious minds.
    2) The earth has tectonic plates.
    3) The earth was designed by a conscious mind.

    This is what happens when you play fast and loose with semantics.Just because you’ve used the word “code” instead of plate people get all confused and mystified, but it amounts to the same thing.

    Now let’s see what happens when you abuse metaphors:

    1) All known sandwiches are created with the intention of being eaten.
    2) The solar system is sandwiched between other galactic formations.
    3) Therefore the solar system (and the starry loaves in which it is nestled) is going to be eaten.

    Now let’s see what happens when you can’t tell the difference between a system (science, math, language, etc…) describing a thing and the thing itself (the universe).

    1) “Apple” is a noun.
    2) Nouns are found in the dictionary.
    3) Next time you’re feeling hungry, open the dictionary up to Apple and chow down (with apologies to Gwyneth Paltrow).

    Now after seeing Matt’s point-by-point rebuttals of your arguments and your refusal (or inability) to understand the strength of his objections, I can’t assume this will have any effect on you (why, for instance, you are troubled by infinite regress but not by the idea of an immaterial god who sits outside of existence but still affects it and – what luck! – requires no cause, is a mystery on par with that of the big bang itself) But hopefully this is a simple explanation of just a few of the flaws in your reasoning for people who read your article and aren’t wearing god-blinders.

    • March 15,2010

      Perry @ 7:03 am

      The word “code” is used in precisely the same way and with precisely the same meaning in both computer systems and biology.

      “Information, transcription, translation, code, redundancy, synonymous, messenger, editing, and proofreading are all appropriate terms in biology. They take their meaning from information theory (Shannon, 1948) and are not synonyms, metaphors, or analogies.” (Hubert P. Yockey, Information Theory, Evolution, and the Origin of Life, Cambridge University Press, 2005).

      See http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/solve.

      All philosophers are troubled by infinite regress.

      An uncaused casue is not infinite regress. Which is exactly my point. At some point, one is required. Godel’s theorem shows why the universe cannot be its own uncaused cause.

      If you want to seriously take part in this discussion, you will need to apprise yourself of the definitions used and the details of the argument.

  35. March 15,2010

    Mike @ 8:41 am

    It’s clear that it isn’t used the same way. The mere fact that human designed codes are self-evidently designed by humans and the genetic code isn’t is enough to show that. That there are resemblances does not make them the same. The fact that you are asserting that they are used in exactly the same way only serves to highlight your circular reasoning.

    “I can take quotes out of context and misapply them too.” – Me in a different conversation that had nothing to do with this.

    The fact that you would try to take Yockey and use his quotes to argue for intelligent design would be comical if it weren’t insulting. I won’t go into depth as to why it’s wrong here, because, thanks to the power and beauty of the internet, someone else has already done this for me. Here’s a teaser:

    “I’m told creationists have started citing this new book of his in defense of their own argument that God must have started life on earth. I’ve not seen this abuse myself, but it wouldn’t surprise me, and at any rate, forewarned is forearmed. If that’s their plan, Yockey throws a bucket of cold water on it.” — To find out why you’ll just have to read the article. Here’s the link – http://richardcarrier.blogspot.com/2006/11/yockey-on-biogenesis.html

    As for infinite regress and the uncaused cause, this is literally the kind of thing they do in intro to philosophy courses. I’m not going to reiterate the entire history of the cosmological argument and its objections, but you’re welcome to read a brief introduction to it at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cosmological_argument#Objections_and_counterarguments

    I guess you think that by throwing Goedel in you can make an old dress new, but just like creationists attempt to rebrand themselves as “intelligent design,” it’s lipstick on a pig.

    Cute bit at the end there. If you want to seriously insult my intelligence while seeming dignified you’ll have to apprise yourself of more intelligently designed slams.

    • March 15,2010

      Perry @ 9:51 am

      Mike,

      If you want to refute my argument about Godel, you will need to refute it line by line. Snide remarks about “lipstick on a pig” are no substitute for facts and logic.

      You will use 100% respectful language in your posts from this point forward or your posts will be deleted.

      Yockey on biogenesis: p. 176: “I have no doubt that if the historic process leading to the origin of life were knowable it would be a process of physics and chemistry. Thus the process of the origin of life is possible but unknowable.”

      “The reason that there are principles of biology that cannot be derived from the laws of physics and chemistry lies simply in the fact that the genetic information content of the genome for constructing even the simplest organisms is much larger than the information content of these laws” Yockey wrote this in his previous book (1992).

      “The existence of a genome and the genetic code divides living organisms from nonliving matter. There is nothing in the physico -chemical world that remotely resembles reactions being determined by a sequence and codes between sequences.”

      Yockey states that the genetic code must be taken as axiomatic, much as we take Planck and Newton’s axioms, because it cannot be derived from the physics of chemistry.

  36. March 15,2010

    Mike @ 10:47 am

    Pretty sure I’ve already addressed your use of Yockey as a pro-creationist source. I also think I’ve made it clear that I’m not trying to convince you personally of anything. The posts above already refuted your argument days before I even read it, the fact that you don’t see that speaks volumes. You have been refuted and you don’t see it, so you’ll forgive me if I choose not to waste my time any more than I already have.

    My commentary was hopefully just illustrative for anyone who didn’t see the plain flaws in logic. I don’t think I’ve said anything here or elsewhere to impugn you, as opposed to your arguments posted (and, as I said, refusal/inability to take any rebuttals seriously).. In terms of your arguments, arguments don’t deserve to be treated respectfully, they deserve to be attacked. Those that are strong enough will withstand the attack. Yours do not.

    You will use 100% non-condescending ultimatums from now on or I won’t post anything else — I probably won’t anyway, I just wanted to let you know in my own special way that I found that to be gratingly paternalistic. Since this is only 93% respectful, you are welcome to delete it.

    • March 15,2010

      Perry @ 11:07 am

      I quote Yockey precisely because he’s not a creationist. Same with Claude Shannon and others. 99% of the people and papers I quote are non-controversial mainstream peer reviewed research. There is nothing remotely controversial about the fact that the genetic code is in fact a code.

      I fully understand that Yockey disagrees with me philosophically. There’s no rule in science, philosophy or life that the person who produces the evidence you use in an argument has to agree with the conclusions you reach about that evidence before you can use it.

      Yockey makes the clearest case I’ve ever seen that the laws of physics and chemistry do not explain the origin or nature of the genetic code. Yockey stops right there and goes no further. I continue forward with the simple observation that all codes and coding systems we know the origin of are designed. Therefore we have 100% inference to design in biology.

      This is not proof, but it is scientific inference. As such it is just as reliable an observation as the laws of thermodynamics and gravity.

      The fact that Yockey doesn’t agree with this is no concern of mine. Yockey tells you there’s no other instance of a naturally occurring code, just the same as I do.

      I have taken every legitimate rebuttal seriously, as I have debated this particular topic online for 4 years now. See http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/infidels for an entire history of this debate. You can attempt to argue that DNA is not a code in the same sense that ASCII is a code but that line of argumentation will get you nowhere. The literature is very clear on what the definition of a code is and both examples fit that definition 100%.

      Mike, if you can produce one example of a naturally occurring code I’ll write you a check for $10,000 and post your evidence on my website. The specification for doing so is http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/solve/

      Until someone can successfully demonstrate a naturally occurring code, the only scientific inference we can make about the origin of the genetic code is that it’s designed. And note that in saying so I have not stepped outside the bounds of science at all. We don’t have to know who the designer is or the exact details of the design process in order for this inference to hold.

  37. March 15,2010

    Mike @ 11:57 am

    1. All types of rapid transit utilities (bikes, cars etc…) are designed by conscious minds and not naturally occurring.

    2. Horses are a type of rapid transit utility.

    3. Therefore, horses are designed by a conscious mind.

    I will give 10 million rubles to the first person to show me a naturally occurring rapid transit utility — keeping in mind that horses don’t count, donkeys, ponies mules, bulls, buffalo neither (Half credit for a midget riding a lasso apso).

    Seriously man, good luck with life and everything, but I am beyond done here.

    • March 15,2010

      Rod MacKenzie @ 12:27 pm

      In relation to this comment…I believe Perry’s point was that when you’re discussing codes, there is no example of a horse.

  38. March 15,2010

    Eric @ 4:39 pm

    Hy folks. Nice debate. Roy, you stated “What caused God? It’s not a coherent question. By definition God is eternal…uncaused.” Ok, but by who’s definition? What if the nether that harbors the multiverse is what is really eternal and infinite. What if it has always been. No one can prove otherwise and and the proverbial circle cannot be drawn around it. If this were the case then God simply fades into one possible explanation as opposed to “the” explanation. What of time? We experience time on a liner scale but that is a function of the brain (as opposed to Brane…couldnt help it), and no necessarily how time exist in its own dimension. Can you draw a circle around time? Can you prove you can? No, you cant. Time may well extend infinitely in all directions unaffected by gravity, energy, velocity, expansion, or the boundaries of the multiverse. Does this prove that all things are begotten from time?…maybe. Or is time the true God? Either that or time doesnt exist and is an illusion according to the reasoning of this article. Thats been proposed before but not readily accepted by science, much less proven. I think what we have here is a creationist trying to prove his view through a very guided discussion using a single mathematical concept; Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem. To truely understand the implications of that theorem we would all need to be doctorate level mathematicians. A single simple tenet of this theorem was put in even simpler layman’s terms. Then that was used to try to argue a point as absolute. Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem does not “prove” the existence of a god (much less a Christian, Buddist, Muslim, Jewish, Egyptian, Greek, African, or any other god invented by mankind). Yes! I whole heartily agree that the possibility of a cosmic conscience exists and that it might be Godly. I believe this because there is no way to completely disprove it either. If time is finite, which we cannot prove, then there is always another circle. Keep in mind. Time was just one of many examples. Replace time with an infinite multiverse, or nether that cant be circled or just consider that the larger circles are also infinite once you break past the multiverse. We have NO way of knowing and many of the variables to this conundrum and God is just one of many…it just happens to be the one you favor.
    - Eric M.

    • March 15,2010

      Perry @ 6:01 pm

      My assertions are based on the facts about the universe that are known at this time.

      The facts as we know them are: The Big Bang occurred 13.7 billion years ago, that it expanded from a single point, and that it has finite mass and energy.

      Time and space are inseparably linked. No space = no time. Time itself begins with the big bang. Therefore time is finite. Yes, you can draw a circle around it. It has boundaries.

      There may be other dimensions of time and other universes but it is impossible for us to know anything about them.

      You are welcome to assert that time and even our own selves are illusory but I don’t know how you’re going to build any kind of epistemology from that foundation. You’re on your own if you want to embrace that view.

      If you want to posit an infinite number of universes, I’m going to ask you to provide evidence that they exist because invoking an infinite number of anything violates parsimony.

      God is defined as eternal and uncaused in Judeo Christian theology.

      Gödel’s theorem directly implies that whatever caused the universe is timeless, boundless and uncaused and not a system.

      Which does interestingly match Aquinas’ Via Negativa.

      No, Gödel’s theorem does not prove God. It only directly infers the existence of an axiom which the entire universe must rest – something which is not space, not time, not matter, not energy, not a system, conscious and boundless.

      • March 15,2010

        Eric @ 9:02 pm

        I would like to thank you for taking the time to address my comment. Time and space affect each other proportionally but it has not been proven that time is relegated to this space only. We are learning more by leaps and bounds and these are exciting times indeed. Your arguments imho are logical and I respect them. I just think there is more to existence then we have discovered. There are unknown variables that we have yet discovered that need to be plugged into the known concepts of existence. I appreciate your comments. Live well

        • March 16,2010

          Perry @ 8:49 am

          Eric, I appreciate your comments too and I appreciate being able to disagree respectfully.

          Oh yes there is definitely more to existence than we have discovered.

          I’d like to address what is commonly described as “god of the gaps” arguments where God is invoked to explain things we can’t explain. I think this is often misconstrued.

          People often paint a picture that “God” used to be the default explanation of everything. And now that we have science that is no longer necessary. This is a mis-characterization of history, science and theology.

          The Judeo Christian worldview has never in the habit of saying “the wind just blew, gee I guess it must’ve been God.” You just do not find that kind of thinking in Christian theology. Or…. if you find it among simple peasants you certainly don’t find it in Augustine or Aquinas or Origen or Luther or Edwards!

          Rather it is asserted that God created the universe, that the universe operates according to specific discoverable laws. And that *sometimes* those laws are superceded by miraculous events; and that the creation of the universe itself is a miraculous event.

          And furthermore that if something is a miraculous event, you will probably know it. Because it was distinctly different from what would *normally* happen. (Like resurrection for example. Everyone knows that dead people normally stay dead.)

          From that standpoint, science is not one bit closer to “eliminating God” than it was 1000 years ago. Far from it! In fact with each passing discovery the we see that the universe is profoundly fine-tuned and highly ordered. And in the largest sense, the mystery only increases. We know know that there are dozens of universal constants (like gravity and nuclear forces) and if those constants were 0.000001% different the universe as we know it would be impossible.

          The mystery will be only that much greater in 20 years than it is now. Not because we know less, but because we know MORE.

          The more we know, the more questions are raised.

          Which is precisely the point of Gödel’s theorems. Gödel is essentially saying that the more you know, the BIGGER the gap is between what is necessarily true and what you can actually prove. In broad terms, Gödel was telling us the same thing the theologians were already saying 1000 years ago.

          Science is not about eliminating God. Science is about discovering how God gets things done. I would submit to you that it’s never been more reasonable to believe in God than it is right now, and there’s nothing in that at all that is weak or abdicates the search for knowledge and truth. Quite the opposite.

  39. March 15,2010

    Brandon @ 5:44 pm

    “Pulsars are not digital commuication systems.”

    Neither is DNA. You just proved to yourself that DNA is not a code by your definition…

    • March 15,2010

      Perry @ 6:04 pm

      Brandon I suggest you consult a dictionary, in which one of the very definitions of “Code” is THE GENETIC CODE. Hubert Yockey’s book should lay to rest any notion that DNA is not a communication system and I invite you to read it before continuing to make this assertion.

  40. March 16,2010

    Hans @ 8:57 am

    Perry,

    First please excuse any mistakes in grammer or spelling, English is not my first language, I accept Godels theory but only as a basic premise, it does seem to explain what “is” however as has been mentioned by you one needs to draw a circle around something to describe it and to refference something ouytside of that circle for a rational explaination of what it is. You use the word “God” to explain that which cannot be rationalised that which just is, but by doing so you necessarily draw a circle arround it. I think the answer which has been mentioned in some posts that perhaps the Universe itself is irrational. Take for example your circle (no matter the size or the object within), concentrate on the circle, the realationship of the circumfernce to the radius is (untill proven otherwise) incorporates an infinitly irational figure “Pi” in that it has no recursion. Although we have no problem seeing the circle as a whole? I think perhaps this is confusing to many but as we delve deeper into subatomic world we see more irrationality and duality. Is light a wave or a particle. It is as with the schrodinger’s cat thought experiment the act of measureing causes the breakdown in the paradox. So to return to your original premise that god must exist is your measurement and true for you untill further information is available to breakdown the paradox created by drawing the circle and breaking the Pi paradox that exists within that circle.

    • March 16,2010

      Perry @ 9:36 am

      Hans,

      You can eliminate the need for God if you postulate that the universe is irrational.

      I don’t see that this is helpful to anyone at all. Doesn’t that pretty much discard the entire foundation of science? For one thing it prevents any atheist from believing they have some kind of corner on “reason and logic.” Actually that would be an interesting reversal, wouldn’t it?

      A religious person says, “I’m religious because I believe in rationality.”

      An atheist says, “I’m an atheist because I believe in irrationality.”

      However odd it may sound I think it’s remarkably close to the truth. A religious person is likely to tell you that while they do not understand everything that happens in the world, they believe God has a plan and it will all make sense in the end.

      An atheist person is likely to tell you they don’t believe in God because of all the wars, bloodshed, disease, gloom and destruction in the world.

      One has faith that there is something outside the circle. The other, because of the inconsistency of what they see in world, insists there is not.

  41. March 22,2010

    Anthony R. Mramor @ 11:33 am

    As a Buddhist I find this discussion very interesting. A concept called the Mystic Law refers to the unknown and inexplainable workings of the Universe, whether or not it is of a God or not, whether one believes this or not. I believe irregardless of an individuals beliefs, the workings of the universe are beyond our understanding; but this should not stop us from at least trying to explain us and our existence.

  42. March 22,2010

    Rohit Nair @ 11:59 am

    I’m not sure why nobody has said this so far. You’ve asked for a “naturally occurring code” multiple times. It seems to me that the answer is quite straightforward, especially as you’ve called it a code multiple times.

    DNA

    Is it not the product of natural processes? Why is it excluded from being considered a natural code? DNA is encoded and decoded every billions of times every day around the world as a consequence of the laws of physics which dictate the behavior of the molecules that make up DNA. Why is it not a suitable answer to your challenge?

    • March 22,2010

      Perry @ 12:32 pm

      Because nobody knows the ORIGIN of DNA.

      There is no known physical process that gets us from non-life to life, from chemicals to self-replicating nanomachines. It’s not a trivial problem, in fact it’s profoundly difficult. The #1 unsolved mystery in all of biology.

      • March 22,2010

        Cranston Hilton IV @ 7:47 pm

        I feel like this is assuming time is an actual thing and not a perception. Time only exist because you need it to exist or everything would be all bunched up together.

        • March 23,2010

          Perry @ 6:35 am

          Time is an actual thing.

          “[Paul A. M. Dirac] appears to have shared much the same opinion as the Time Traveller in the 1895 novel The Time Machine by H.G. Wells, whose science-fiction novels he read: ‘There is no difference between Time and any of the three dimensions of space except that our consciousness moves along it.’” -from The Strangest Man, The Hidden Life of Paul Dirac, Mystic of the Atom by Graham Farmelo

  43. March 22,2010

    George Klein @ 10:25 pm

    This theorem says indirectly, that whatever we don’t know must be god’s work. But that’s how religion was born. There are certain things our brains cannot comprehend. One simple example: what is infinite?
    Or, if somebody believes in the bible I would ask him/her: What happened before the first day was created. What was there than? What/who created god? If nobody/nothing, then what? These things are impossible to comprehend. Our brains are not capable to understand. I simply accept those things and don’t try to explain them with an entity named god. That’s why I don’t believe in the entity named god. And I am very content with that. The main difference between me and religious people is, that I don’t say that in what I believe is the right thing, and try to persuade others to think like me. Religious people believe, that their view is the right one and keep trying to persuade others to believe in what they do.

    • March 23,2010

      Perry @ 10:31 am

      George,

      In college I took a math class called “Matrix Theory” aka Linear Algebra. In Matrix Theory you create and analyze dimensions of space as easily as x’s and y’s in 9th grade algebra. You say, “H is a 27 dimensional space with 16 orthogonal vectors…” just as casually as drawing X and Y coordinates on a piece of paper. Even though it’s impossible to visualize 16 or 27 dimensions.

      I can’t say I really enjoyed the homework assignments in that class, it was all very abstract. But the concepts definitely expanded my mind. It made the concepts we’re describing here not so impossible to comprehend.

      We live in 3 dimensional space. Time is a 4th dimension, linked to the expansion of space. String theory posits 7 more dimensions in addition to those four.

      Those dimensions are just mathematical variables. Just a space that the universe operates within.

      This entire article is about the idea that all those dimensions and elements of the universe are necessarily contingent on something. And that something is outside of space, outside of time, outside of all dimensions, and boundless. That something is inherently similar to how theologians have always described God.

      “For the scientist who has lived by his faith in the power of reason, the story ends like a bad dream. He has scaled the mountain of ignorance; he is about to conquer the highest peak; as he pulls himself over the final rock, he is greeted by a band of theologians who have been sitting there for centuries.” – Astrophysicist Robert Jastrow, a self-proclaimed agnostic.

      God may have created millions of other dimensions and other universes that we have no way of peering into. What happened before the first day was created? Only God could tell you. Maybe someday… He will.

  44. March 23,2010

    Anthony @ 8:16 am

    Time is real and I believe this can be proved through say the decay of carbon 14, or if I get out of a chair and walk across the room; and relative to my own consciousness, time exists.

  45. March 23,2010

    Steven Jones @ 9:51 am

    Perry;
    Thank you for this, I found it very engaging and enlightening. I do think, however, that you are making a logical maneuver that is not valid, yet I think there is an interesting dilemma posed… and perhaps a way out.

    Godel’s arguement is essentially one of epistemology: how can we know. If I were to live in my house, and all the doors and windows were eternally blocked shut, I could know nothing of the outside world. Yet, to truly understand, objectively, my predicament would entail stepping outside my house and seeing it from the outside. Yet, this ‘need to know’ does not necessarily say anything objectively about what is outside my house, it only illustrates that fulfilling my need to know would entail stepping outside. In a sense we are like lab rats. Can the lab rat know anything about the observer? There is an epistemological directionality that must be observed – the need to know does not necessarily prove that that need can be fulfilled. While God perhaps can draw a circle around my house, does not mean I can draw a circle around Him. Or does it? Seemingly, something from outside the sphere would need to reach back.

    Reading your article jogged my memory that Godel’s argument sounds suspiciously like something else much older. Many are familiar with Anselm’s Ontological Argument, and its over-simplification, but many are not aware that Anselm proceeded that argument in his writings with a clarification that runs something like this:

    The comparative goodness of any two things cannot be determined solely by comparing them to each other, invariably a third ‘ideal’ is needed to set a standard of comparison. This not only holds true for any ‘goodness’, but also any goodness one can think of, such as ‘greatness’. This applies when comparing any two commodities one can conceive, regardless how great. Therefore, for thought to be possible, a supreme ‘Ideal’, or ‘Greatness’, higher than any conceivable ideal, must exist or any comparison or description would be stymied. It is this supreme Ideal Greatness we call ‘God’.

    People have tried to criticize Anselm’s logic for centuries, yet it somehow bridges a gap that most don’t understand. His logic is often called Modal Logic. While this sounds very much like Godel’s argument, I think Anselm had provided something Godel hasn’t.

    If I am still locked in my house, I may wonder what about all these things in my house that don’t have sufficient cause for existing within my house alone. There are no trees in my house, yet my furniture is all made of wood, etc. Something from the outside is indeed reaching back. For Anselm, this ‘thing’ that is reaching back, bridging the gap between my circle and God’s is rationality itself. To Anselm, rationality is not a sufficient cause in itself and provides perhaps a unique case of ‘reaching’ that doesn’t have the same limitations as other things might have.

    While it appears that epistemology can only move one way, there does seem to be, according to Anselm, a certain capitulation in the act of knowing itself. Something ‘bounces back’ from the observed to the observer or the act of knowing would be stymied. While much of this might be an illusion or imagination (a movie about Avatars does not prove they actually exist), when applied to ‘knowing’ itself, it can’t be just an illusion or ALL knowing would just an illusion, a phantasm (certain ‘realities’ of the Avatars must exist such as existability or the movie would make no sense). Where Anselm succeeds and Godel fails is in the recognition of evidence needing to traverse the boundary in both directions. To Anselm, rationality itself is this ‘thing’. In Godel’s example, the question is not whether a circle can be drawn around us, it is can a circle be drawn around God.

    • March 23,2010

      Perry @ 10:16 am

      Steven,

      Thanks for your great post. You have actually provided the most understandable explanation of Anselm’s ontological argument that I’ve ever heard. In the manner that it is normally stated, it makes no sense to most people. Your explanation is very good.

      To your last point: I maintain that a circle cannot be drawn around God. This is the only way that my argument stands without any internal contradiction. The most important point is: God is not a system. God is not composed of individual parts and God is not divisible and God is not space. So God therefore must be boundless.

      My conclusions based on Gödel are remarkably similar to St. Thomas Aquinas’ Via Negativa:

      1. God is simple, without composition of parts, such as body and soul, or matter and form.[62]
      2. God is perfect, lacking nothing. That is, God is distinguished from other beings on account of God’s complete actuality.[63]
      3. God is infinite. That is, God is not finite in the ways that created beings are physically, intellectually, and emotionally limited. This infinity is to be distinguished from infinity of size and infinity of number.[64]
      4. God is immutable, incapable of change on the levels of God’s essence and character.[65]
      5. God is one, without diversification within God’s self. The unity of God is such that God’s essence is the same as God’s existence. In Aquinas’s words, “in itself the proposition ‘God exists’ is necessarily true, for in it subject and predicate are the same.”[66]

      You might be interested in knowing that Gödel took Aselm’s argument quite seriously and in fact wrote a proof of it. You can read it here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Godel_ontological_proof

      I’ve thought about Gödel’s ontological proof but haven’t arrived at any definite conclusions. I think more can be done with it and hopefully I’ll get a chance to address it. (There are some other comments waiting in the queue right now and I’ll get around to those too, soon.)

      • April 14,2010

        Chris D. @ 7:45 pm

        You have said:

        “…Rather it is asserted that God created the universe”

        You obviously believe the judeo-christian god created the universe. If you are a Christian, then by definition you believe God has a plan for every individual on this planet. You also believe he made us in his image. My objection concerns our understanding of a being that can conceive of things on a linear time scale, ascribing properties, making plans, creating things…

        I haven’t seen anyone call you out on this yet, but if you believe God has a plan, “created” the universe, made us in his image, or just generally has any plan at all for anyone or anything, then you face the problem that any being that can conceive of a linear series of thoughts constituting a “plan” than this being must have a mind, a mental space, containing said concepts, and as such a being it would contradict your #1 assumption about God…

        “1. God is simple, without composition of parts, such as body and soul, or matter and form.[62]”

        He must have composite parts if he is to think in a linear series of events, such as having a plan for the universe. So not only does this contradict your most essential definition of God, but confronts you with the problem of “drawing a circle” around God to explain him and his workings. Infinite regress of explanations ensue…

        • April 14,2010

          Perry @ 8:41 pm

          Why does being able to think plan or intend necessarily require a composition of parts?

          • April 14,2010

            Chris D. @ 10:33 pm

            “Why does being able to think plan or intend necessarily require a composition of parts?”

            By definition to think means:

            1 : to form or have in the mind
            2 : to have as an intention

            Where in nature do we find a system that plans, thinks or intends without a composite of parts (physical parts) or a mind?

            Secondly,

            “Since all known mental activity has a physical basis, there are probably no disembodied minds. But God is conceived of as a disembodied mind. Therefore, God probably does not exist.”

            http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/nontheism/atheism/minds.html

            Forming a thought or intention requires a temporal series of physically causal events shaping said mind, therefore necessitating by definition composite parts.

            • April 15,2010

              Perry @ 5:30 am

              You didn’t carefully read the article that this whole thread is about.

              When you apply Godel’s theorem to the universe the conclusion is that the axiomatic thing on which the universe depends (ie God) is IMMATERIAL. Read the article and walk through the logic step by step.

              This question goes back to the mind/body problem in philosophy, which is at least 3000 years old, and answers it: The mind is not necessarily a body.

          • April 15,2010

            Chris D. @ 8:12 pm

            I wonder, why doesn’t the logical fact that disembodied minds are improbable give you a sense of the enigma of creation instead of reaffirming a thesis (the Christian God) that has never been sufficiently proved with any kind of evidence? (which is why I assume your using a mysterious and complex logical theorem to argue your case then actual evidence that would be accepted by any good scientist) The disembodied mind case is contradictory to your Godel God conclusion, so why not see it for what it is, a logical mystery maybe best delegated to classroom/intellectual discussion so as to learn how to think properly and in turn focus on real world problems in which science can give a big helping hand.

            First, assuming your logic pertaining to Godel’s theorem is correct than I must agree that an axiomatic thing must describe the universe, being boundless and immaterial. But this far from proves the Christian God existence, but instead proves that a formless thing needs to be logically evoked to fulfill the requirements of Godel’s incompleteness theorem in application to the universe and the question of existence and creation.

            The implications of this proof are just as mysterious as our understanding of singularities and the matter that gets sucked into them at the center of black holes. Why am I wrong in this assumption about mystery and my accusation that you are logically wrong in the unwarranted conviction about the Christian God, instead of the innumerable amount of other God’s created by man?

            Why don’t people assume, in the same way you do in your argument, that an immaterial flying spaghetti monster must be evoked to explain the formal system of a black hole? Because it’s a farcically made up religion, not a millennial old religion based on concepts and rituals from previous doctrinal (and fundamentally irreconcilable from Christianity) religions. There’s evidence in this fact, that Christianity is one of many systems of thought to fulfill many of humanities evolved needs in response to our unique consciousness; hence one of many answer systems, but more importantly to notice is the logical consequence of this fact, that the Christian God does not logically follow as a unique or obvious divine being that best answers philosophic questions about existence, creation and morality.

            My main question for you is this; will you admit evoking the Christian God is a premature answer to this immaterial logical-necessity, which is only possible to defend in a theorem that gives many a sense of wonder and mystery, not logical certainty in the Christian God? The fact that a lot of people read your arguments, and see it’s evident sophistication, but nonetheless take it as an interesting anomaly in our constant struggle to discover our place in this universe (multiverse?) shows that the christian God is far from apparent and obvious; most importantly in the lack of evidence for his direct effect upon this world and people’s lives. All historic events, personal testimonials and claimed witnessed miracles have more logical evidence in favor of a naturalistic explanation. More on this later…

            Ok, so we agree on an axiom of immaterial cause for the universe stems from the logical consequence of your logic. We also agree (I’m assuming) on a disembodied mind being evidentially and logically a more probabilistically false assumption about the nature of minds than that of a disembodied mind that happens to be that of the Christian God, or souls etc. I’m sorry but you have not answered the mind/body question at all, as you stated in your last response. I have not read one thing in any of your debates that has you logically confirming a fact about the nature of disembodied minds. So this is how I see it. Your taking two mysteries, that are hotly debated topics throughout human history, ones that have inspired millions of great thinkers toward a cornucopia of conclusions (that give much to the world in their mysterious nature and the training it takes to shape ones mind to understand even a small portion of them and the debate as a whole), and fusing them into coherence when none is evident, instead only loose correlation based on the beliefs of one religion amongst many.

            You then argue further with a question:

            “I invite you to answer your own question:

            Does the truth about God – do claims about God – affect anybody?”

            Did the claims about Zeus affect anybody? Do the claims of mystics of all types, mediums, masters, gurus, lunatics affect anybody? How about the book “the secret”, it affects people positively, how do you explain this? Natural explanations can, very well actually. Psychology, cognitive neuroscience and evolutionary psychology do extremely well if we wanna get specific.

            and:

            “Just because they’re (supposed miracles) politically incorrect doesn’t mean they don’t exist…”

            Politically incorrect? I think more accurately they can be labeled as “conjectural claims, unsupported by robust evidence”, and subject themselves to naturalistic explanations, which are more wondrous and interesting then the claims themselves (not to be mention vast, as in volumes and hundred of years of theory, research, paradigm shifts and more accuracy of theory and result).

            You also said,

            “Reason concerning the effects of God on the universe is a field known in academia as theology. I invite you to set aside the pejorative attitude and follow the evidence where it leads.”

            I reply with this refutation that methodological naturalism does not rule out explanations that are a priori:

            “In utilizing methodological naturalism, science and history do not assume a priori that, as a matter of fact, supernatural causes don’t really exist. There is no conceptual conflict between practicing science or history and believing in the supernatural. However…methodological naturalism would not be as stunningly successful as it has in fact been if metaphysical naturalism were false. Thus the de facto success of methodological naturalism provides strong empirical evidence that metaphysical naturalism is probably true.”

            “methodological naturalism does not rule out any explanation a priori. To see why this is, let us recall that methodological naturalism is defined by the way a metaphysical naturalist trying to advance science would act. I think it is relatively clear that such a person would have to be a fallibilist with respect to even his metaphysical beliefs; …he wants to be as sure as he can that his explanations correspond to the way the world really is. Since he does not have all possible data, he cannot be sure that there is not some kind of evidence for the supernatural out there, so he would not want to trap himself in a routine that would ignore even blatant evidence for the supernatural in favor of a less plausible naturalistic hypothesis. The metaphysical naturalist who wishes to fulfill the aims of science cannot rule out the possibility that his metaphysical views may eventually be shown to be wrong – hence, he must be open to some degree to supernatural explanations. However, this degree is likely to be a very slight one, which is what gives methodological naturalism its naturalistic flavor – the methodological naturalist, in acting like a metaphysical naturalist devoted to science, will, while being open to the slight possibility of evidence for the supernatural, consider naturalistic hypotheses on average more parsimonious than supernaturalistic ones, and hence will give them more benefit of doubt. In short, his methodological commitments can tell him to examine all possible naturalistic explanations for a phenomenon first, and can assign higher prima facie probabilities to such explanations on average, but the least plausible naturalistic explanation will tend to have a lower prima facie probability than the most plausible supernaturalistic explanation.”

            “Of course, if naturalistic methodology can lead to the confirmation of supernaturalistic hypotheses, it can also lead to the falsification of supernaturalistic hypotheses. In fact, this is what has happened to a number of models offered by scientific creationists…But it is perfectly clear that a large number of hypotheses that appeal to the supernatural make sufficient empirical predictions to be falsified.”

            http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/mark_vuletic/ntse.html

            You must first refute the logical conclusions of these claims before you assert that theological evidence for God’s effect in the world is stronger than the naturalists evidence.

            and this is what you said about nature (the natural world)….

            “Indeed, surely if nature tells you anything, it tells you that God can be wild and ferocious. If nature tells you anything about God, it also tells you that God can be soft, tender and beautiful…”

            How do you make this monumental leap in logic? Also remember it’s contradictory for God to be both ferocious and tender if he is also to be logical, which you said he was. “It tells you” is off the bat a wrong interpretation of our interaction with the world; “Science tells us” is more accurate, or if you want, “we tell it”, in that there was no written or thought about account of the world before homosapiens arrived on the scene. And if the world was somehow telling us anything how do you make the assumption there is the Christian God behind the curtains telling us? Why not instead try to really follow the evidence (countless pieces of logical, natural evidence) and see that your attempts at marrying God (immaterial and unknowable) to natural effects and stating it as if it was a ipso facto proof of your first premise that God Is, is an extremely premature leap in logic and certainty? The ever cohesive and well understood accumulated evidence, research and pragmatic effects on how we live because of science towers over the accumulated religious evidence for any of it’s wild creation myth/immaterial God claims. This is without question because the logic shows it to be. There is more evidence anyway you look at it for a naturalistic world than that of a supernatural one (one in which a Christian God intervenes on behalf of human, which you admit you believe).

            “…do not neglect to distinguish the difference between what God has created and what man has destroyed.”

            How about what man has created: science, logic, vaccines, peace treaties, constitutions, medical devices, academy’s of learning, language, art, music, meaning. Each one of those developments can be naturally traced along a historical time-line with varying degrees of cultural transmission between an innumerable amount of connections between individuals. This is the amazing natural world we live in, one where emergent properties exist from apparent chaos. The only way to distinguish between your two choices is by first making God self evident, which he is not, due to the fact that we are debating him, along with millions of other people right now.

            “I would invite you to open yourself to understanding God as God really is…”

            I would invite you to open yourself to understanding the natural world as the natural world really is.

            You say at the top of this web-page,

            “The Incompleteness of the universe isn’t proof that God exists. But… it IS proof that in order to construct a consistent model of the universe, belief in God is not just 100% logical… it’s necessary.”

            Isn’t this exactly the leap I’m talking about?

            So, the theorem doesn’t prove God exists, only that the natural world needs something outside of it to explain itself…therefore a consistent model of the universe necessitates belief in the Christian God? You say “belief in God”, but can’t this be debated as to what “God” is? If so, then why aren’t you holding your tongue since no one has given us a definitive definition or evidence of God that stands up to all attacks of logic, evidence and reason, the same tools you use to argue your claims?

            Here is some new naturalistic/scientific research, so I must ask, how does this square with your conviction that there is more evidence for God’s presence than the opposite? These few are a drop in the bucket compared to all accumulated naturalistic observations and theories.

            “There is evidence that within the U.S. strong disparities in religious belief versus acceptance of evolution are correlated with similarly varying rates of societal dysfunction, the strongly theistic, anti-evolution south and mid-west having markedly worse homicide, mortality, STD, youth pregnancy, marital and related problems than the northeast where societal conditions, secularization, and acceptance of evolution approach European norms (Aral and Holmes; Beeghley, Doyle, 2002).”

            1. http://moses.creighton.edu/JRS/2005/2005-11.html

            “We’re slowly chipping away at the structure of morality,” says Young. “We’re not the first to show that emotions matter for morality, but this is a more precise look at how emotions matter.”

            “The finding offers a new piece to the puzzle of how the human brain constructs morality, says Liane Young, a postdoctoral associate in MIT’s Department of Brain and Cognitive Sciences”

            2. http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2010/03/100324121008.htm

            God is not the Creator, claims academic

            3. http://www.telegraph.co.uk/news/newstopics/religion/6274502/God-is-not-the-Creator-claims-academic.html

            4. http://www.livescience.com/culture/081027-religion-altruism.html

            5. http://www.livescience.com/culture/090109-kids-spirituality.html

            6. http://www.livescience.com/culture/etc/090512-the-evolution-religion.html

            • April 15,2010

              Perry @ 10:17 pm

              Chris,

              You have discomfort with the Christian God and I understand that.

              Nonetheless let it be clear that my logic regarding Godel is sound. If the universe is logical then it necessarily follows that the universe is contingent on something outside itself that immaterial and boundless. Such an assumption is axiomatic – not provable but necessary.

              This alone firmly establishes the validity of metaphysics.

              Naturalism itself presumes to somehow know that there is nothing outside the universe. Godel’s incompleteness theorem gives all possible inference, with the full authority of science, that there is something outside the universe. Therefore we can make a 100% logical conclusion that if science is valid, naturalism is false.

              Thus the core of the atheist argument is dismantled by Godel.

              Disembodied mind flows from the following syllogism:

              1. The pattern in DNA is a code
              2. All codes we know the origin of are designed
              3. Therefore we have 100% inference that DNA is designed and 0% inference that it is not.

              We can explore five possible conclusions from this:

              1) Humans designed DNA
              2) Aliens designed DNA
              3) DNA occurred randomly and spontaneously
              4) There must be some undiscovered law of physics that creates information
              5) DNA was Designed by a metaphysical mind, i.e. God.

              I rigorously argue this case at http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/faq and articles linked from this page.

              The implications of this are that information is not a product of physics and chemistry but rather that information is always created by top-down causation not bottom-up.

              The existence and nature of information itself likewise dismantles the materialistic worldview. Because materialism cannot explain the origin of information.

              Information is immaterial, therefore it has an immaterial source, therefore the Original Mind is immaterial.

              I do not believe the Christian God is a premature conclusion because if one embraces an essentially Darwinian time line and a secular understanding of the Big Bang (as I do), Genesis 1 matches this time line tit for tat. See http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/genesis1 for a detailed examination of the text.

              You may be unaware that there are many volumes of documented miracles. You can find links to many sources at http://www.coffeehousetheology.com/miracles, near the bottom of the article.

              You may also be unaware that the foundation of science, which is an assumption that the universe is governed by fixed discoverable laws, originated in Christian theology. It most certainly did not come from atheism. See http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/faq/#christian

              Thanks for the quote from Mark Vuletic. I know him, I had extended conversations with him 10 years ago in Oak Park Illinois, we were good friends for awhile. I appreciated the mental exercise and challenge of having those discussions with him. One time we rode to Madison Wisconsin together to see Dan Barker.

              Yes I understand that supernatural hypotheses can be falsified, but you seem to be forgetting that my line of argumentation is Godel’s incompleteness theorem. Again, if the universe is logical and mathematical, then a metaphysical world necessarily exists.

              A mother bear can be wild and ferocious, and tender. If it is logical for a bear to be that way why is it illogical for God to be that way?

              Man did not create science or logic. Man discovered these things.

              “Emergent properties exist from apparent chaos.” True enough if you’re talking about snowflakes. Not known to be true if we’re talking about digital code, such as we find in DNA.

              You have presented a predictable atheist list of objections but you have not refuted any of my logic.

              If you want to talk about correlation between religious belief and social problems in the United States, fair enough. Then let’s also talk about the human rights track record of atheism.

              I’ve got a book on my shelf called The Black Book Of Communism. It documents in excruciating detail the genocide of 160 million people under mostly atheist regimes — in the 20th century alone.

              “Our program necessarily includes the propaganda of atheism.“ -Vladimir Lenin

              Is it merely a coincidence that more people were murdered by atheist governments in the 20th century, than by all religious wars in all centuries combined? You decide.

  46. March 23,2010

    Steven Jones @ 10:06 am

    “Well, our friend Dirac, too, has a religion, and its guiding principle is this: ‘There is no God and Dirac is his prophet.’” – Wolfgang Pauli, Nobel Prize winner in physics.

    • March 23,2010

      Perry @ 10:19 am

      “God is a mathematician of very high order.” -Paul Dirac, theoretical physicist who predicted the existence of antimatter

  47. March 23,2010

    George Klein @ 11:55 am

    No. It will not. In my world god doesn’t exist.

  48. March 23,2010

    Sam B. @ 12:40 pm

    Hey Perry,

    I really admire you for taking the time to respond to every single comment posted here… It is for this reason that I now find myself writing a comment when initially I did not have the intention to do so.

    I believe I have a slightly different take on the ‘DNA is designed’ argument from that of earlier commentators. Hopefully this new argument will interest you.

    I take it you believe that since all observed codes that we know of (putting aside DNA) are designed by conscious beings, then DNA can be inductively assumed to also have been designed by a conscious being.

    Now imagine, if you will (for just a few moments), that there was a world where it were possible that some codes occur without the input of a conscious being, and that they were around on that planet. And imagine, please, that in that world, we could thus divide all codes into two types: those created by conscious beings, and those not created by conscious beings.

    Person A believes that there exist both types of codes. Person B believes that only consciously created codes exist.

    How would person A, I asked myself, in that particular world, prove to person B that some codes exist without conscious creators? Perhaps he would take a code that has existed long before humankind, show it to person B and say, ‘Behold, this is a code not created by a conscious mind.’

    But person B would merely say, ‘You have not proven that this is a code not created by a conscious mind – only that it is a code not created by humans. This only shows that a conscious creator of codes existed before humans, and that it was that creator who made this code. The same can be said of any code not created by humans.’

    Of course, person B cannot be proven wrong, even in this world that we are imagining where some codes do exist without conscious creators. The simple fact is that no-one can prove that a certain code has no conscious creator, whether that is actually the case or not.

    Hopefully you will realise by now that it is impossible to distinguish, using logic or other means, this imagined world from our own. It may be true that all codes in this world were created by conscious beings. But to say that it MUST be so because we cannot prove it false is a logical fallacy.

    ( From Wikipedia: The argument from ignorance, also known as argumentum ad ignorantiam (“appeal to ignorance”), or negative evidence, is a logical fallacy in which it is claimed that a premise is true only because it has not been proven false, or is false only because it has not been proven true. )

    Once again, thank you for your patience and willingness to respond to the comments directed towards your article, and have a nice day.

    • March 23,2010

      Perry @ 4:33 pm

      Sam,

      You ask: “How would person A, I asked myself, in that particular world, prove to person B that some codes exist without conscious creators?”

      Simple. You demonstrate that you can put chemicals in a tank that don’t have codes and open it up later and find that they do. Then you analyze the process by which it happened.

      In other words, simple scientific proof. Empirical evidence.

      The scientific community has never provided any kind of evidence that a structure such as DNA, or the information it contains, originates from chemicals. You cannot derive the properties of any code from the laws of physics and chemistry.

      We know more about codes in 2010 than we know about most other things in science. Every major university in the world has a Computer Science program. You can take 200 credit hours of classes that discuss the conceptual aspects of codes, objects, databases, storage, transmission and computation.

      My argument is not an argument from ignorance. It’s an argument from positive evidence. Based on exhaustive knowledge of the thinking process involved in data storage, processing and retrieval.

      It is the materialist / atheist position which is presenting an argumentum ad ignorantiam. I invite you to scour, in detail, the contents of http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/infidels – read every single argument people have made against my thesis in the last 4 years. See for yourself if I’m not telling you the straight-up truth. They insist DNA isn’t really a code; they tell me rocks & snowflakes are codes; they tell me I’m not allowed to use inductive reasoning; they tell me that DNA was a happy chemical accident….

      Not a single one of these arguments is scientific.

      The conclusion that DNA is designed conforms to everything we know about codes, and everything that’s taught in any accredited 4-year Computer Science curriculum.

  49. March 23,2010

    Sam B. @ 5:12 pm

    Perry,

    Thank you for your reply. While I’m glad to hear that you would be convinced by empirical evidence, I hope you do realise that an experiment to display the random event of code coming together ‘randomly’ would be impractical – I hear that even computer models would be inadequate to show such an event, though I myself am a little confused as to why.

    Still, I suppose there’s not much room for manoeuvre on the ‘empirical proof’ side of the argument, so I will say that I am defeated, when it comes to that, and will merely hope that one day science will once again come to understand something that only religion is be able to explain for now.

    I’ll go and read that Infidels thread you gave me the link to now, and perhaps I will return with more questions when I have finished. Thanks for your response!

    • March 23,2010

      Perry @ 6:17 pm

      Sam,

      A question I’m surprised people don’t ask more often is: “What if a physical process that creates codes is discovered? What would that mean? Would it destroy your ‘God argument’?”

      I think it’s a really great question. And I’m not at all opposed to such a discovery being made.

      That discovery would probably hold the key to our scientific understanding of consciousness, which so far is nearly a complete mystery.

      It would also be a giant breakthrough, a massive paradigm shift on the same level as the splitting of the atom or Einstein’s theory of relativity. It would be the Nobel prize discovery of the century.

      And by the way I don’t think it would destroy my ‘God argument.’ It would only stack the deck even higher at the beginning of the universe. It would raise even greater philosophical questions about how our universe came to be the way that it is. In 2010, science is no closer to “eliminating God” than it was 500 years ago. The ‘gaps’ that science has allegedly closed only grow bigger with each passing year.

      Meanwhile I think it’s dishonest of the scientific community to not simply follow the evidence where it leads. To simply admit what is a very obvious conclusion from the facts at hand: That intelligence appears to be behind the genetic code.

      We don’t have to agree on what that intelligence is or what it means. But once we acknowledge the exacting design and purposeful nature of DNA all kinds of other doors will open for biological discovery. We need to acknowledge the facts we do have before we can discover new ones.

  50. March 24,2010

    Sam B. @ 3:24 am

    Hey Perry,

    I’m not a biologist, unfortunately, and even if I were, I wouldn’t necessarily know enough to understand the full workings behind this, but since I’d like to continue discussing this, I hope you’ll forgive me for my stabs in the dark and correct me where I contradict current evidence.

    I have read through the Infidel’s riddle section of your website, and found it quite interesting. I guess I would have to say that I’m not entirely sure that I understand your argument as to why DNA can’t have ‘evolved’ (I know I can only use the word as an analogy at this stage) from earlier, simpler biological or chemical components… And why those components could not have arisen by chance from other chemicals. After all, I hear the earth had a few hundred million years before any real complex stuff arose.

    If that sort of thing can happen, I don’t see how the whole ‘code/information’ bit is relevant. After all, that is only a consequence of what something like DNA consists of, surely?

    Again, I hope you’ll forgive me for my tentative guesses – if I had more time, I would look into the subject properly and try to see if I could understand papers on the subject, but I am a student with not long before my exams, so now is perhaps not the best time for that.

    (As for the ‘simplier biological/chemical components’ I mentioned, I believe the Iron-Sulphur world theory and the RNA world hypothesis are examples of this, though unconfirmed.)

    • March 24,2010

      Perry @ 5:40 am

      Any argument for chance fails as soon as you try to apply some statistics to it. I talk about this at http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/infinite-chasm/

      The possibility of such a thing happening by chance is so vastly improbable that trillions of years and literal a universe of universes would not be even close to enough time. Most people have no comprehension of how bad the statistics actually are. A few hundred million years doesn’t even begin to be enough.

      Nowhere in any biological literature will you find any statistical model that shows this is favorable. Frankly the only people who believe this is possible are those who haven’t tried to do the math.

      Any proper definition of evolution means variation filtered by natural selection. To have variation you have to have replication and to have replication you have to have a code. Therefore a code is a REQUIREMENT for evolution to even be possible.

      So it is not possible that the code “evolved” from a non-code. The term evolution does not even apply.

      I have created a specification for discovering a naturally occurring code here: http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/solve/

  51. March 24,2010

    Uygar Yuzsuren @ 7:08 am

    The very basic fallacy and the wrong premise made in this argument is information’s being a product of a conscious entity. You cannot make this presupposition since information may also thought to be an emergent entity, rather than being a designed one. For more about this you can read Daniel Dennet’s Darwin’s Dangerous Idea:

    http://www.scribd.com/doc/2573941/Daniel-C-Dennett-Darwin-s-Dangerous-Idea-Evolution-and-the-Meaning-of-Life

    • March 24,2010

      Perry @ 8:20 am

      I have this book. Nowhere in this book does Dennett ever demonstrate that information is an emergent entity. For that matter, nowhere in science is there any hard evidence that this is true. “Emergence” in this context is a purely hypothetical construct.

      Dennett also asserts that all you need is self replication and evolution will occur automatically. This is also not true and there is no evidence for such an assertion in any of the literature. Evolution is an engineered process as I discuss at http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/new-theory-of-evolution/

  52. March 24,2010

    Anthony R. Mramor @ 9:13 am

    I’m no scientist, (wish I was because I’d be rolling in the dough!) but I’ve come to the conclusion that DNA is the “Language of the Creator”. Once we become fluent we will be able to talk to God. Or, I look at it this way. If DNA is a language, the the Human Genome or any other creature’s genome is a book.

  53. March 24,2010

    Steven Jones @ 9:22 am

    To be correct, and fair, Darwin actually ‘lifted’ the Theory of Evolution in an act of out-and-out plagiarism, shifting it into the camp of Uniformitarianism. Darwin had no real observational evidence from which to derive the Theory, nor did the Theory appear in the first editions of Origin of the Species.

    Darwin was Russel Wallace’s research contact person at home in England. Wallace was sending his overseas research to Darwin for safe keeping. Then Darwin saw Wallace’s Sarawak Law: “Every species has come into existence coincident both in space and time with a pre-existing closely allied species.”

    Darwin rushed to take credit for the finding (Wallace was overseas and could do nothing about it) leaving out Wallace’s conclusion: “Because man’s physical structure has been developed from an animal form by natural selection, it does not necessarily follow that his mental nature, even though developed pari passu with it, has been developed by the same causes only.”

    Then this statement from Wallace: “these speculations are widely held to be far beyond the bounds of science — a superior intelligence has guided the development of man… and for a special purpose, just as man guides the development of many animal and vegetable forms.”

    See – ‘A Delicate Arrangement’, Arnold Brackman, (New York) Times Pub.

  54. March 24,2010

    Sam B. @ 11:17 am

    Hey Perry,

    I have read your Infinite Chasm page and I understand where you’re coming from, mostly. I looked around for a while afterwards and came across this page with an article by Ian Musgrave (http://www.talkorigins.org/faqs/abioprob/abioprob.html). It’s not too long, and tries to justify all his statement with references to scientific papers.

    Looking elsewhere, I found that the actual numbers used in that article were not accurate, since it was mostly to make a point, rather than to be 100% mathematically accurate. I found that the corrections for those numbers (http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/richard_carrier/addendaB.html#notemusgrave) did not apparently negatively affect his conclusions.

    You have probably seen that article before, and since it seems to contradict your statements on your Infinite Chasm page, I was wondering if you’d be willing to explain what errors Musgrave has made (aside from the corrections found in the second link)?

    • March 24,2010

      Perry @ 2:27 pm

      He says:

      “The synthesis of primitive self-replicators could happen relatively rapidly, even given a probability of 1 chance in 4.29 x 10^40″

      This statement is not being made on the basis of any kind of empirical evidence. He’s playing a shell game. And that’s regardless of whether his math is right or wrong. Here’s why:

      Nobody has ever in any circumstances synthesized a self-replicating molecule, ever, anywhere. The only known self replicating machines are living organisms. No one has ever even designed one successfully, let alone seen one assemble by chance.

      (I am using Von Neumann’s definition of self replicating machines, not something else like salt crystals etc, which is not really self replication at all. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Self_replication)

      He is only giving you the probability that the chemicals allegedly necessary to make this molecule will arise under some particular circumstances. But he has not given you a probability that they will self assemble in the right structure.

      Thus there is no empirical basis whatsoever to the claims he is making. Frankly the entire Origin Of Life field is barely on the fringes of empirical science. This article contributes nothing to it.

  55. March 24,2010

    Sam B. @ 5:01 pm

    Hey Perry,

    It’s true that he never precisely mentions how those self-replicators get together from their individual parts. I guess the text reads in such a way to make the reader assume the ingredients can randomly stick together somehow, through chemical processes…

    Well, I guess that’s the big question then, isn’t it? It’ll be interesting to see the progress that scientists make as they try to find the answer. It just goes to show how far we still have to go before we can fully understand life.

    There is one last thing I’d like to ask you, now. In an earlier comment, you said “once we acknowledge the exacting design and purposeful nature of DNA all kinds of other doors will open for biological discovery. We need to acknowledge the facts we do have before we can discover new ones.”
    This confuses me more than anything else, I must confess. Surely the only way to make progress is to keep probing, testing and doubting… What could be gained from accepting that DNA is designed?

    If you could explain what you meant by that statement, I’d be very grateful.

    • March 24,2010

      Perry @ 9:58 pm

      The proposition that DNA is NOT designed has led to all kinds of ridiculous theories. The most egregious being the “Junk DNA” hypothesis, which held for about 30 years. Many biologists actually believed, if you can even fathom it, that 97% of our DNA is “junk.” I’m absolutely serious. The term has not even yet been completely abolished – it’s still floating around.

      The entire human genome barely fits on a CD ROM. It’s surprising enough that 750MB of data is enough to contain all the plans for a human body. That alone is some sort of miracle. If humans designed DNA it would take 100 CD Roms. Microsoft Windows doesn’t even fit on a single CD ROM and it’s nowhere near as amazing as the human body. The Junk DNA theory would actually imply that all the plans fit on 22 MB. Outrageous.

      And: The idea that nature would waste 97% of anything has to be the stupidest thing I’ve ever heard of.

      There’s also “vestigial organs” – evolutionary leftovers that serve no purpose. Well, I’m sure there’s *some* truth to the idea but the vast majority of organs declared vestigial were eventually found to have important functions. At one time some people said the human body had 200 vestigial organs. Now the number is hovering at maybe less than 5. That number will continue to get smaller.

      And so it goes. When you read atheistic biology literature you constantly find descriptions about how “dumb” the “designs” are. This literature is written by people who for the most part have never designed anything, let alone designed an eye or a lung. As an engineer who designed products that were produced in quantities of hundreds of thousands, I have a particular appreciation for the complex tradeoffs involved in even the simplest devices. When I see living things I see incredibly elegant designs, and choices that involve tremendous subtlety. That subtlety is lost on people who deny purpose in biology.

      What happens if you reverse that assumption?

      You CANNOT study purpose-FUL things the same way you study purpose-LESS things. In other words you study a thermostat very differently than you study a rock. (There’s a whole book on this distinction called “Perceptual Control Theory” by Powers.) A rock has no goals, no programs, no intentions. It’s just a rock. A thermostat actively seeks to maintain temperature in a room. It has definite goals and it accomplishes those goals in certain ways.

      If you study a thermostat and you assume it has no purpose, it’s totally impossible to really understand it.

      That is the problem with reductionistic, materialistic biology. It denies teleology (purpose) and it denies design. If there is, however, a design, then materialism will inevitably come to wrong conclusions. If it’s true for a thermostat, it’s doubly true for a Toyota Camry and triply true for biology. The Junk DNA hypothesis is a prime example of the failure of that kind of thinking.

      If there’s not a design, it’s still better to assume there is one than to assume there’s not one. Because assuming purpose naturally leads to more detailed discovery and interpretation than assuming accident.

      It now turns out that the other 97% of the DNA is where all the INTERESTING stuff is. The 3% only codes for proteins. It specifies the raw materials. The 97% is instructions for how to assemble those materials. Well that part is a lot more interesting. 30 years of assuming it was “junk” prevented a whole bunch of people from ever studying it at all.

      30 years of lost scientific process because someone whose ego was out of control proclaimed that something he didn’t understand was junk. Tragic.

      By the way, the 97% is also the part that controls evolutionary development. So the people who told us evolution was random and accidental were actually preventing us from finding out how evolution actually happens: That it’s a systematic, engineered process that is goal seeking and incredibly sophisticated. See See James A. Shapiro, “A 21st Century View of Evolution”: http://shapiro.bsd.uchicago.edu/Shapiro.2005.Gene.pdf for a paper on how the evolutionary process actually works.

      If we assume design in DNA then we can make all kinds of hypotheses – predictions – about what biology will discover in the next 3 or 10 or 20 years. I have made a series of such predictions here:

      http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/testable-hypothesis-id-1/ and in subsequent articles 2 3 and 4.

  56. March 26,2010

    Arthur @ 12:59 pm

    I proved mathematically beyond any question that the logical system of simple addition is complete in and of itself.

    • March 26,2010

      Perry @ 2:08 pm

      Every symbol you define in your system of simple addition has to be taken as axiomatic.

  57. March 26,2010

    Arthur @ 2:33 pm

    “Every symbol you define in your system of simple addition has to be taken as axiomatic.”

    No they don’t. Not even close. The symbols are arbitrary. They’re not bloody axiomatic, they’re just a convenient shorthand. Remember “computably generable?” A computer could prove addition with the FORM of my proof above. The symbols are irrelevant. You could use anything you wanted. The definitions are all INSIDE the system.

    What’s more, Gödel’s Theorem is discussed at length by Torkel Franzen and specifically in his book “Gödel’s Theorem: An Incomplete Guide to its Use and Abuse” ISBN 1-56881-238-8

    He spent a lot of his life specifically devoting his time to discussing this theorem and common misconceptions applied to it. You would benefit from reading his work.

    • March 26,2010

      Perry @ 4:21 pm

      Arthur,

      Yes you are right, your addition system is computable and I stand corrected.

      So at this point the attribute in question is: “Non-trivial.”

      Gödel’s theorem says:

      “For any consistent, non-trivial, formal, computably enumerable theory that proves basic arithmetical truths, an arithmetical statement that is true, but not provable in the theory, can be constructed. That is, any effectively generated theory capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete.”

      If your system of addition is both consistent and complete, it is therefore “trivial” according to Gödel’s definition.

      Now the original question that brought this up in the first place was: “Does Gödel’s theorem apply to the universe?” I said yes: If the universe is logical [CONSISTENT] then it is necessarily incomplete.

      To make my statement completely accurate I have to say that if a theory is consistent and non-trivial then it is necessarily incomplete.

      What happens if I substitute the word “system” in place of the word “theory”?

      “For any consistent, non-trivial, formal, computably enumerable system that proves basic arithmetical truths, an arithmetical statement that is true, but not provable in the system, can be constructed. That is, any effectively generated system capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete.”

      I don’t believe the above statement is any less true than the original version. The physical universe is most definitely capable of expressing elementary arithmetic. I still stand by my statement that the universe is incomplete.

      • March 31,2010

        Arthur @ 2:57 pm

        “…any effectively generated theory capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete.”

        I hardly think you’ve come anywhere close to proving — or even creating a convincing inference — that the universe is effectively generated. You quoted the Wikipedia article to me, so let me do the same to you: “A formal theory is said to be effectively generated if its set of axioms is a recursively enumerable set. This means that there is a computer program that, in principle, could enumerate all the axioms of the theory without listing any statements that are not axioms. This is equivalent to the ability to enumerate all the theorems of the theory without enumerating any statements that are not theorems”

        That’s fine but you said:

        “What happens if I substitute the word “system” in place of the word “theory”?”

        Well you’ve made a bit of a mess, that’s what happened. A formal theory is necessarily incomplete. That’s what Gödel was referring to. No matter how clever my observations about a system, no matter how far-reaching my insight, my theory will always depend on the system itself which is beyond the theory and always will be. There is always the possibility of creating an axiom which is true but not provable within my theory.

        The system itself, in this case, the universe, cannot be proven by a computer program. It does not prove anything. The universe DOES nothing. It just is. It doesn’t derive arithmetic or theories. It doesn’t create formulae. It is the thing outside that we observe and try to explain.

        “For any consistent, non-trivial, formal, computably enumerable system that proves basic arithmetical truths, an arithmetical statement that is true, but not provable in the system, can be constructed. That is, any effectively generated system capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete.”

        The universe is neither effectively generated, not is it capable of expressing elementary arithmetic.

        “I don’t believe the above statement is any less true than the original version.”

        And yet it is.

        “The physical universe is most definitely capable of expressing elementary arithmetic. I still stand by my statement that the universe is incomplete.”

        Give me one example, just one example, of a naturally occurring expression of elementary arithmetic. Keep in mind, that pointing to the world and saying one apple plus one apple equals two apples doesn’t count. You have to show me one naturally occurring expression of elementary arithmetic and then we can talk some more.

        • March 31,2010

          Perry @ 4:01 pm

          Arthur,

          Are you saying that a computer can express elementary arithmetic but the universe can’t? That it’s OK to count 1′s and 0′s but it’s not OK to count apples?

          • March 31,2010

            Arthur @ 4:18 pm

            “Are saying that a computer can express elementary arithmetic but the universe can’t? That it’s OK to count 1′s and 0′s but it’s not OK to count apples?”

            Arithmetic is not naturally occurring. It’s a philosophical concept WE devised to try to have reference to plurality. I’m saying EXACTLY that. WE programmed computers based on OUR concept of arithmetic. Counting apples is HUMANS counting apples. Using a computer to count apples is HUMANS counting apples.

            There is no difference because they are both artifice.

            Give me one example of a naturally occurring expression of elementary arithmetic and we can have a serious debate about the applicability of Gödel to the universe. Until such a time as a naturally occurring expression of elementary arithmetic has been discovered, however, it’s a far cry to say that the universe derives its own formulae and theories.

            • March 31,2010

              Perry @ 4:44 pm

              If a computer counts apples and no one is there to watch it, then are apples being counted or not?

          • March 31,2010

            Arthur @ 5:19 pm

            Of course the apples are being counted. But given that a human created and programmed the computer to count apples based on a series of commands, it’s just humans counting apples.

            Unless, of course, you’re arguing that computers are naturally occurring, in which case I would use your own syllogism against you:

            1. All computers are designed by humans.
            2. A computer is counting apples.
            3. The apple-counting computer was designed by humans.

            • March 31,2010

              Perry @ 5:44 pm

              I’m glad you agree that the apples are being counted. I’m also sure we both agree that the computer is not conscious that it is counting apples.

              Nonetheless it is counting.

              I don’t want you to forget the larger point which is that computers, not just humans, can perform mathematical expression. Is that not the whole point of the Turing Machine, which was inspired by Gödel’s work in the first place? Turing proposed a mechanized way of doing computations and showed that even computers can produce undecidable propositions.

              Everything mathematical that can be applied to a computer, also applies to the universe, because a computer is part of the universe.

              A falling object that accelerates due to gravity is expressing mathematics: The velocity is the integral of the acceleration and the position is the integral of the velocity. That’s the concept behind an analog computer.

              All things that obey the laws of physics express arithmetic. To be more precise, they express the laws of physics and so far as is known to science, all such behaviors are mathematical.

  58. March 27,2010

    Steven Jones @ 12:18 pm

    While one could argue that there are several ‘things’ in the Universe, such as mathematics, that exist un-caused because they arise out of naturally occurring ratios etc., that in no way challenges the belief that those things whose existence is contingent, such as rationality and life, require a cause. Their existence is contingent on having been caused by something. As there is not sufficient reason within the bounds of the Universe for these ‘contingent things’ to explain their existence, it is very warranted to look beyond the bounds of the known Universe to explain their existence. While mathematics may have a certain ‘order of proportion and ratio’ within its own bounds, that order falls significantly short of explaining true order, the ability of an intelligence to recognize that order, and the ability to communicate the meaning of the order. While one rock plus one rock equals two rocks, what does either rock care about the other?

    Further, the fact that someone might extrapolate an infinite regression of causes from a speculated ‘First Cause’ in no way undermines the need for that Cause. One could say I am caused by my mother, who, in turn, is caused by her mother, and on and on. Just because I can create a hypothetical infinite regression of ‘mothers’ does not undermine the fact I, indeed, had a mother. In fact, it is this very infinite regression that demands a ‘First Cause’ at some point.

    “Each particular thought is valueless if it is the result of irrational causes. Obviously, then, the whole process of human thought, that we call Reason, is equally valueless if it is the result of irrational causes. Hence, every theory of the universe which makes the mind a result of irrational causes is inadmissible, for it would be a proof that there are no such proofs. Which is nonsense. But Naturalism, as commonly held, is precisely a theory of this sort.” – CS Lewis

  59. March 31,2010

    Hans @ 3:50 pm

    Perry

    I wish to add something which is off topic but of interest none the less. I have added comments before, and you have been kind enoughh to answer them. I have also stated hat English not being my first language may cause some confusion. I woud classify myself as an agnostic. Perhaps a cowards way out, however I have been invited to a bible study group consisting of people who in all but their unwavering belief in a christian god seem rational. I mainly take a back seat as I feel my scepticsm would be doing an injustice to their hospitality, however at a recent event (which they called the HOLLY SPIRIT night) I was privy to something that trully amazed me. I had heard that when invocing the Holy Spirit believers have been known to speak in tongues. At the particular event I attended one specific person seemed to go into a trance like state and started talking what seemed to me to be giberish (for reference the meeting was recorded!) after the meeting the person who had the experience was taken to one side and questioned by a mesianic jew who was also present it turns out she was talking in an ancient form of aramaic which he recognised part of. We are having the transcript of the meeting looked at by a scholar who hopes to be able to give a fuller explaination of exactly what she said, as she was as suprised as any of us. Had never learnt any arabic, latin or aramaic in her life… crazy no??!

    • March 31,2010

      Perry @ 4:40 pm

      Hans,

      I think it’s great that you’re doing that and I think you should feel free to lurk there as long as you like. It doesn’t surprise me that this happened.

      Mark 16:17 And these signs will accompany those who believe: In my name they will drive out demons; they will speak in new tongues;

      Acts 2:4 All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues[a] as the Spirit enabled them.

      5Now there were staying in Jerusalem God-fearing Jews from every nation under heaven. 6When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard them speaking in his own language. 7Utterly amazed, they asked: “Are not all these men who are speaking Galileans? 8Then how is it that each of us hears them in his own native language? 9Parthians, Medes and Elamites; residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya near Cyrene; visitors from Rome 11 (both Jews and converts to Judaism); Cretans and Arabs-we hear them declaring the wonders of God in our own tongues!”

      Tongues is a normal and customary aspect of a healthy Christian community.

  60. March 31,2010

    Arthur @ 6:07 pm

    “I’m glad you agree that the apples are being counted. I’m also sure we both agree that the computer is not conscious that it is counting apples.

    Nonetheless it is counting.”

    Agreed. But it never would have been counting without humans telling it to. So you really haven’t accomplished anything by pointing out what we already knew.

    “I don’t want you to forget the larger point which is that computers, not just humans, can perform mathematical expression.”

    In fact that’s the point of computers. A machine, designed by humans, to perform the operations we tell it to faster than we can perform them ourselves.

    “Is that not the whole point of the Turing Machine, which was inspired by Gödel’s work in the first place? Turing proposed a mechanized way of doing computations and showed that even computers can produce undecidable propositions.”

    Because branches of mathematics are incomplete systems and are by definition incomplete. Therefore, if you set a computer to computably generate the system, it will reach a paradoxical statement at some point. Again, this doesn’t do anything for your argument as the computers were created by and programmed by us.

    “Everything mathematical that can be applied to a computer, also applies to the universe, because a computer is part of the universe.”

    That’s a terrible leap in logic. I would almost call it obtuse. You might as well say, “Everything that applies to a banana applies to a supermarket because a banana is in a supermarket.” You’ll find that statement to be wildly inaccurate after a short while.

    “A falling object that accelerates due to gravity is expressing mathematics: The velocity is the integral of the acceleration and the position is the integral of the velocity. That’s the concept behind an analog computer.”

    A falling object is DESCRIBED BY US using our CREATED LANGUAGE of mathematics. Mathematics was created, derived from observation and thought, it was not created by the universe.

    “All things that obey the laws of physics express arithmetic. To be more precise, they express the laws of physics and so far as is known to science, all such behaviors are mathematical.”

    We, as humans, would argue that all things that obey the laws of physics can be expressed by arithmetic. But that’s not what we were talking about, even by leaps and bounds. We were talking about formal mathematical systems that can express elementary arithmetic. For example, Finite Mathematics. Finite math uses variables and symbols to express arithmetic functions within a closed system. Finite math depends on assumptions outside of it’s system to function. Hence finite math is incomplete. Although the fact that it is called finite should have been a clue.

    But if you accept basic arithmetic as true (which we do), you can then use the basic arithemtic functions to attempt to describe things in the real world. To suggest that the universe itself somehow derived these higher functions of math, though, and is therefore incomplete is a huge leap in logic.

    • March 31,2010

      Perry @ 9:45 pm

      When we assign a symbolic meaning to states of a computer, the computer is formally understood to be doing arithmetic.

      This is the essence of the Church-Turing Thesis:

      “The three computational processes (recursion, ?-calculus, and Turing machine) were shown to be equivalent by Alonzo Church, Stephen Kleene, J.B. Rosser…Informally the Church–Turing thesis states that if an algorithm (a procedure that terminates) exists then there is an equivalent Turing machine, recursively-definable function, or applicable ?-function, for that algorithm. A more simplified but understandable expression of it is that “everything computable is computable by a Turing machine”.” Ref http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Church%E2%80%93Turing_thesis

      The Church-Turing thesis means that formal mathematics can be expressed by physical devices as well by human beings.

      Likewise, as soon as we assign a symbolic values to the acceleration and velocity of an object, the moving object can be formally understood to be doing arithmetic as well. There is no difference.

      A well-accepted result of the Church-Turing thesis is that incompleteness applies to computation just as it does to pure mathematics. It makes no difference whether the symbol is imagined in your mind, written on a piece of paper, stored in a computer or represented by a physical object. Incompleteness applies to all four.

      • March 31,2010

        Arthur @ 9:57 pm

        The Church-Turing thesis was the there is no difference in computation between humans and computers. Later it was postulated that there was a slight difference in the upper bounds of what a computor (with an o) is. Even so, the fact is that the computers are made by humans and are using human algorithms.

        Computers are not naturally occurring. Further, nowhere in nature will you find an expression of elementary arithmetic. Suggesting that because we analyze the acceleration and velocity of an object, that object is expressing mathematical truths is sophistry of the highest order.

        We are using math to describe the behavior of the object. It is observed. But it’s not as if the object suddenly derived a formula to allow you to prove simple addition. What exactly did you think “capable of expressing elementary arithmetic” meant? Definitely not “being describable by math.”

        If you have nothing of further value to add, I will thank you for an engaging conversation. But I consider the matter at rest until and unless you can show me anything remotely related to a logical counterargument in terms that is actually based on reality and not the misapplication of a thesis.

        • March 31,2010

          Perry @ 10:59 pm

          The Thesis says:

          “Every effectively calculable function is a computable function.” The words “effectively calculable” will mean “produced by any intuitively ‘effective’ means whatsoever” and “effectively computable” will mean “produced by a Turing-machine or equivalent mechanical device”

          Thus the mechanical system is mathematically equivalent to the mentally produced system. This is a statement of equivalence, not sophistry.

          The origin of the system is irrelevant, because both minds and mechanical systems are capable of expressing elementary arithmetic.

          It doesn’t matter whether I’m counting 1′s and 0′s, apples or rocks, I can use all of the above to prove simple addition.

          • March 31,2010

            Arthur @ 11:55 pm

            The origin of the device is highly relevant as WITHOUT HUMAN MANUFACTURE, NO DEVICE WOULD EXIST TO COMPUTE the apples or the 1s and 0s or what have you. There is no naturally occurring computer that is capable of expressing elementary arithmetic. Suggesting that, because Turing machines and the human mind are semantically equivalent (or even if you say they ARE equivalent, it doesn’t matter) Turing machines are naturally occurring is simply wrong and other avenues get nowhere once you realize that humans are the impetus for the device.

            The universe is not capable of naturally expressing elementary arithmetic. That is a function of human construct, language, philosophy etc. The universe itself DOES nothing, it just is.

            • April 1,2010

              Perry @ 12:47 am

              You’re continuing to ignore the wording of the Church-Turing Thesis. It says that a physical system expresses arithmetic just as legitimately as a mind does. An object accelerating due to gravity is computationally equivalent to human mathematical integration. The only difference is that a human is conscious of it and the physical system is not.

              Gravity causes unsupported objects to fall, does it not? The motion of a falling of an object exhibits mathematical properties. This is true regardless of what labels humans assign to those properties. It appears to me that the universe does more than ‘nothing’.

          • April 1,2010

            Arthur @ 7:36 am

            I’m not ignoring the wording of the thesis. You’re misinterpreting it and misapplying it.

            “A Turing machine is a theoretical device that manipulates symbols contained on a strip of tape. Despite its simplicity, a Turing machine can be adapted to simulate the logic of any computer algorithm, and is particularly useful in explaining the functions of a CPU inside of a computer…Turing machines are not intended as a practical computing technology, but rather as a thought experiment representing a computing machine. They help computer scientists understand the limits of mechanical computation.”

            A Turing machine that can compute anything is called a Universal Turing Machine. “A more mathematically-oriented definition with a similar “universal” nature was introduced by Alonzo Church, whose work on lambda calculus intertwined with Turing’s in a formal theory of computation known as the Church–Turing thesis. The thesis states that Turing machines indeed capture the informal notion of effective method in logic and mathematics, and provide a precise definition of an algorithm or ‘mechanical procedure’.”

            So the Church-Turing thesis says that a Turing machine (which is a specific thing, by the way, and not ANYTHING that can be expressed mathematically like your physical example of falling) computes effectively and, further, that there is no effective computer that is substantively more powerful (more effective). Other computers may work faster or more efficiently. They may be faster or have fewer instructions, but they are not more effective.

            But Turing machines do not occur naturally. They consist of a Tape that is broken into cells with a finite alphabet and a blank symbol, a head that can interpret the tape, an action table, and a state register.

            Gravity does not have a tape, a finite alphabet, a blank symbol, a head, or a state register.

            In any case, neither Turing nor Church argued that a computer occurred naturally and expressed elementary arithmetic. They said that a proper Turing machine effectively proves an algorithm.

            Again, the fact that gravity can be expressed mathematically doesn’t mean that gravity itself is expressing math, and certainly, gravity is not a Turing machine and is beyond the bounds of your incorrect assertion.

            • April 4,2010

              Perry @ 8:05 am

              1. Calculus, differential equations, algebra and trigonometry apply to mathematical models of falling objects.
              2. Therefore Calculus, differential equations, algebra and trigonometry accurately describe falling objects.

              By the same reasoning:

              1. Incompleteness applies to all mathematical models of the physical world.
              2. Therefore incompleteness accurately describes the physical world.

              To date no one has discovered an exception where mathematical reasoning fails to also apply to the laws of physics. Until someone finds an exception to this the only logical inference we can make is that the universe, like mathematics, is incomplete.

          • April 4,2010

            Arthur @ 11:00 am

            “1. Incompleteness applies to all mathematical models of the physical world.”

            No it does not. It only applies to formal mathematical theories that can express and derive elementary arithmetic. The universe is not a formal mathematical theory. Theories are used to describe the universe, not vice versa.

            That’s why we had that whole tangent about Turing machines and natural computers. You are wrong and every argument you have brought up has been flawed in some fundamental way. When that happens, you shift the goal posts or engage in a fallacy of relevance. If those prove ineffective, you resort to a burden of negative proof. When that proved ineffective you just restated your initial position with no regard to any of the problems that you failed entirely to address.

            This will be my last post as it’s clear that you simply believe what you believe and no amount of logic, mathematics, philosophy or education makes a difference to you. Fine. You’re welcome to believe what you like, but everyone who has read the entirety of the comments is aware of how very very wrong you are.

            • April 5,2010

              Perry @ 8:02 am

              Arthur,

              As you have seen I cannot assert that the universe IS a formal mathematical system. I can only demonstrate that it exactly obeys mathematical laws. In other words it behaves like one.

              You stated that the universe doesn’t do anything, it just “IS.” I replied that it exhibits lots of behaviors. And that if we assign symbols to it, it performs computation. And I cited the Church-Turing thesis in stating that even a purely mechanical system can perform arithmetic.

              The salient issue here is that the universe exhibits mathematical behavior. And that mathematical descriptions and calculations give us true statements about the universe.

              So for example we can posit an electrical filter (LC circuit), mechanical filter (Mass/Spring) and acoustical filter (helmholtz resonator) and the three are isomorphic. All three oscillate. Each is described by an identical differential equation. The math equation itself is isomorphic to the three systems. The mathematical system, the idealized electrical system, the mechanical system and acoustical system are all conceptually identical.

              To solve the equation we can use any number of mathematical devices and there are many choices. We have integration, laplace transforms, numerical methods – and they will ALL accurately predict the behavior of the system. They all give us the same answer.

              We have all kinds of mathematical operations that apply to nontrivial arithmetical theories: differentiation, integration, algebra, matrix theory, differential equations, set theory, and ALL of them apply to the universe. Mathematical theories are used to understand the universe and theories about the universe are used to understand math. Knowledge travels in both directions.

              Therefore I don’t see how anyone can reasonably say, “But wait a minute, Gödel’s theorem is an exception. Sure, all that other stuff applies to the universe, but Gödel doesn’t.” That makes no sense. I can only suspect that the reason you insist on this exception is that it contradicts your religious views.

              I cannot mathematically PROVE that Gödel applies to the universe. But I do have 100% inference, based on all the other properties of mathematics that do apply to the universe. Thus I have the full authority of science in postulating that the universe is incomplete. Because science assumes that the universe is logical and mathematical.

              Are you unconditionally committed to the atheist worldview or are you willing to follow the evidence wherever it leads?

          • April 5,2010

            Arthur @ 9:45 am

            “As you have seen I cannot assert that the universe IS a formal mathematical system. I can only demonstrate that it exactly obeys mathematical laws.”

            Obeying laws doesn’t make something a formal mathematical theory or system. It’s a large leap in logic to go from one to the other, especially when a formal mathematical theory has such a specific form.

            “You stated that the universe doesn’t do anything, it just “IS.” I replied that it exhibits lots of behaviors. And that if we assign symbols to it, it performs computation. And I cited the Church-Turing thesis in stating that even a purely mechanical system can perform arithmetic.”

            The Church-Turing thesis doesn’t say that, though. It says that a Turing Machine performs arithmetic in a way that is not substantively different or less effective than a human. But as I said, a Turing machine is a specific thing which was created by human beings with that particular goal in mind. The universe is not a Turing Machine by the formal definition of a Turing Machine. The universe doesn’t perform arithmetic just because it can be described by it.

            You can argue that the universe “does” things by using language such as: Gravity acts on an object; but it’s a far cry from rephrasing, “We’ve noticed the following effects and we’ll call them gravity” for brevity, to suggesting that gravity is a system that derives its own formulae.

            “The salient issue here is that the universe exhibits mathematical behavior. And that mathematical descriptions and calculations give us true statements about the universe…

            We have all kinds of mathematical operations that apply to nontrivial arithmetical theories: differentiation, integration, algebra, matrix theory, differential equations, set theory, and ALL of them apply to the universe. Mathematical theories are used to understand the universe and theories about the universe are used to understand math. Knowledge travels in both directions.

            Therefore I don’t see how anyone can reasonably say, “But wait a minute, Gödel’s theorem is an exception. Sure, all that other stuff applies to the universe, but Gödel doesn’t.” That makes no sense. I can only suspect that the reason you insist on this exception is that it contradicts your religious views.”

            Because Gödel isn’t a system of calculation or a tool to solve or any of those other things you described. Gödel’s theorem is a philosophical truth about formal systems of math that derive and express elementary arithmetic. Nothing more. It’s only because you don’t believe that that you insist it applies to something else. But you’re wrong. It does not and it was never meant to. As to my religious views, I’m not an atheist, so nice assumption. I’m a theistic person. This avenue of “proof” is just wrong, though.

            “I cannot mathematically PROVE that Gödel applies to the universe. But I do have 100% inference, based on all the other properties of mathematics that do apply to the universe. Thus I have the full authority of science in postulating that the universe is incomplete. Because science assumes that the universe is logical and mathematical.”

            You do not have 100% inference because you still don’t understand Gödel. He himself didn’t use his theorem to postulate God. He used an ontological argument. He himself was fully aware that his theorem was true and useful, but that it didn’t apply to everything. Science assumes that the universe is complete and consistent, too, so Gödel wouldn’t apply.

            “Are you unconditionally committed to the atheist worldview or are you willing to follow the evidence wherever it leads?”

            I believe in God and I think I do him a better service by actually accepting knowledge and evidence as opposed to continually positing my own misguided views about something. But thank you for getting defensive and doing so much of what I said you do in my last post. Have a nice life.

            • April 5,2010

              Perry @ 10:34 am

              Please accept my apology for assuming you were an atheist. I confused you with another person in this thread who was.

            • April 7,2010

              Perry @ 9:16 pm

              Hello all,

              I’ve refined this further since my previous post.

              Gödel’s theorem says: Any effectively generated theory capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete.

              The Church-Turing Thesis says: A computer (Turing Machine) is also considered “effectively generated” and expresses elementary arithmetic. Mechanical computation is likewise incomplete.

              Postulate:

              All physical systems subjected to measurement express elementary arithmetic.

              Examples:

              1. Children add and subtract with their fingers.
              2. An abacus performs addition and subtraction.
              3. A bucket of water & spigot does integration
              4. A vibrating string solves differential equations in real time.

              In all the above examples the observer or measurement device did not do the arithmetic, the physical system did.

              Therefore incompleteness applies to all physical systems just as it does to mathematics.

  61. April 1,2010

    Jamie @ 4:08 pm

    Hi, is an assumption that conciousness is quantifiable made? By assuming that conciousness exists then god can be proved (according to your reasoning), but what if it doesn’t? The human brain and what we assign as being concious is only a complicated series of chemical reactions, giving the illusion of conciousness which allows people can go about their daily business without going mad. In essense the human brain is no different from a computer with an added element of randomness generated by interaction with surroundings. Would be interested to see what you make of this.

    • April 6,2010

      Perry @ 6:12 am

      Many philosophers believe that consciousness is not quantifiable. If you’re aware of yourself then consciousness exists: “I think therefore I am.”

      If a brain was just a computer with an added element of randomness, then we’d add elements of randomness to computers and they would be able to think.

  62. April 1,2010

    Sean @ 4:53 pm

    You are assuming that the universe is the grandest scheme available and there is nothing beyond it capable of having a circle drawn around it. Basically you are assuming that the universe is finite, and while it is true that what we can currently perceive of the universe is finite that does not mean that there isn’t more to it.
    If the universe were infinite Godel’s theorem would be true but there would be no necessity for some indivisible god. The process of drawing a circle is to limit the contents of the circle to a finite amount, no matter how large that amount is. But if the universe were infinite then by definition to take any finite amount of it would leave an infinite amount of something, however unimaginable, outside of amount defined by the circle. That would not mean that this infinity is indivisible, the opposite actually it is infinitely divisible, but no matter how you divide it there are still more larger “circles” that could be defined containing the previous circle.
    Even if you could theoretically make a circle that can contain infinity, infinity contains infinite infinities. pardon my overuse of the word but i dont know any other way of putting it.

    anyways those are just my thoughts after reading your article and some of the discussion. I hope the way i put it makes sense if not i could try rephrasing it.

  63. April 6,2010

    Jamie @ 7:20 am

    I do not feel educated enough to make any real contribution to this arguement. Perry if you have effectively proved that God exists while reason and logic holds would publishing this finding in a scientific journal not be more worthwile than arguing with people on the internet? If you have already done this i apologise.

    • April 6,2010

      Perry @ 8:39 am

      That’s a perfectly legitimate question. People like Arthur are helping me pound the slag off this argument (thank you Arthur) and that’s where the Gödel argument is for me right now.

      My DNA / information theory argument which you can find at “If you can read this, I can prove God exists” – http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/ifyoucanreadthis.htm is advanced far beyond that point and is in a stage where it is truly ready for academic publication.

      However the current state of scientific journals is that it is EXTREMELY politically incorrect to connect science and theology. Sternberg got thrown out of the Smithsonian for publishing just this sort of paper. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sternberg_peer_review_controversy

      The peer review process is normally a good thing but it is *highly* resistant to new paradigms – in fact it is designed to reject them. So I’m not taking that route, I’m going to the public with it. So for example I believe in evolution but I think the Darwinian theory is woefully inadequate and in fact blatantly and demonstrably wrong on major points. The general public knows that and there is no lack of books from even atheist biologists detailing the problems with Darwinism.

      I’m taking a similar path – the court of public opinion. With that in mind, don’t let journal committees do your thinking for you. Think for yourself.

  64. April 6,2010

    Tim @ 1:40 pm

    Hello Perry,

    I don’t think it was Gödel’s intention that the undefined and unproveable rest outside the circle is called “god”. Most readers will associate many things (values, traditions,…) with this term and therefore it’s missplaced in this text.

    Besides you described a theorem but it actually seems that you take it as a law (with religious intentions?). That made me distrustful.

    Tim

    • April 8,2010

      Perry @ 1:21 am

      Gödel most certainly believed in God. Regardless of what his views on God were, the theorem is not subject to the intentions of the person who discovered it. The theorem is subject to the extent of its logical applications. Everything I have said here follows perfectly from the premises: Something immaterial, boundless, conscious and outside of space and time is a required axiom for the universe to exist.

      If you feel distrustful towards religion I’m OK with that. I just invite you to carefully comb through the logic and see whether this conclusion makes sense.

  65. April 9,2010

    David Beck @ 7:01 pm

    I appreciate your valiant attempt to invoke Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem (actually two theorems) as a proof of God’s existence. You state, “He [Gödel] proved that any statement requires an external observer.” I believe others may have already pointed this out, but simply put the proposition that you claim to be proving is, “God exists,” and therefore must be included in your formal system of axioms and rules which would allow you to make such a statement, and, in turn, should your system meet the necessary conditions of a “formal” system, would be subject to Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem.

    Gödel, as you aver, was a mathematical genius. He was also expressly interested in proving the existence of God. Don’t you think, if he could have figured out a way to use his Incompleteness Theorem to prove God’s existence, he would have done so? Instead, he pursued an ontological argument similar to that proposed by St. Anselm. Although it is rumored that he thought he was close to a proof, he apparently was never quite satisfied, and as a result we have no record of his efforts in this regard.

    By the way, I want to thank you for recommending to your readers Rebecca Goldstein’s scholarly and entertaining book, “The Proof and Paradox of Kurt Gödel.” The irony of your recommendation cannot be missed as Ms. Goldstein is an atheist. For those interested, I would also recommend her recent novel, “36 Arguments for The Existence of God,” in which she satirically plumbs the contentious nature of faith and reason.

    • April 10,2010

      Perry @ 7:34 am

      The statement “God exists” is subject to incompleteness because it refers to something outside of itself. But God is not subject to incompleteness if God is indivisible, timeless and boundless. Logically, to avoid infinite regress, something has to be both complete and consistent and the only thing that can fit that definition is something that resembles God.

      Why didn’t Gödel use his theorem to prove God exists? I can only speculate. But I think it’s because you cannot formally prove that the universe is consistent, you can only assume or infer it. Pure mathematicians are never comfortable with this. The Church-Turing thesis is a thesis not a proof for example. I can also speculate that Gödel would have faced a wall of political correctness. Goldstein’s book describes how intensely political Princeton was and is. Academics are categorically among the pettiest people in the professional world. The Dean of Journalism at the University of Nebraska once told me that national politics was a cakewalk compared to what goes on with a university faculty. Gödel might have paid a heavy price for publishing a proof of God. Guillermo Gonzalez, author of The Privileged Planet, sure did.

      But I’ve been quite clear all along that while I cannot prove God. And I do not have the full authority of mathematics, I do have the full authority of science. Because the universe does computation, and the entire Western notion of science assumes that the universe is consistent. To assume anything else literally forces us to suspend reason and logic.

      So to the extent that math and science together can prove anything (which is 100% inference) we can be certain that the universe is incomplete.

      I am aware that Rebecca Goldstein is an atheist and she’s welcome to come here and comment. Her book is absolutely outstanding and both informative and entertaining. If Ms. Goldstein drops by, I want her to know I greatly admire her work.

  66. April 11,2010

    David Beck @ 11:15 am

    It’s 4010 and scientists have discovered and formalized all knowable laws of physics. Yet to your delight, you can still apply Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem and exclaim, “athiests are irrational.” It’s a small consulation, but I’m not sure anyone will be listening. Good luck on fine tuning your theories.

    • April 12,2010

      Perry @ 5:43 am

      It sounds as though you think history has been on a long path of marching towards the elimination of God. I would suggest to you that this is a very myopic view. Science itself rests on belief that the universe operates according to fixed discoverable laws (which is unprovable – an axiom precisely of the Gödel sort). Most people don’t know this idea first came from Christian theology. I talk about this further at http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/faq/#christian

      The idea that science and faith are inherently in conflict is mostly driven by Young Earth Creationists and Atheist Fundamentalists. In the history of science it’s a relatively recent development. The list of scientists and mathematicians who regard their work as somehow providing insight into the mind of God is long indeed, from Galileo to Newton to Einstein to Stephen Hawking.

      And yes, atheists are irrational. I have just demonstrated the same with straightforward airtight logic in this thread.

  67. April 13,2010

    David Beck @ 8:59 am

    What I was suggesting with the 4010 example is that even if science does create a formal system of all the “knowable” laws of physics, one can still appeal to Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem and claim that we don’t know everything. For some this may be a problem, but for me it opens a world of possibilities of free inquiry and liberal discourse unfettered by the “airtight” dogmatism of any ilk; religious, political, or even scientific. What you have demonstrated is the beauty of mathematics not only concerning questions of the physical world but also of the metaphysical. As you state above, Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem applies to the metaphysical statement “God exists” and by extension, I would add, “God is indivisible.” There is a delightful infinite regress in pursuing this course, which is something you feel is necessary to avoid although I think simply demonstrates the power and beauty of mathematics. Way back in the 6th century BC the Pythagoreans postulated that God is not a mathematician, mathematics is God. Your fascination with Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem may lead you to the same conclusion. By the way, I would like to recommend to your readers Mario Levio’s book, “Is God a Mathematician?” It touches on many of the discussion points throughout this thread.

  68. April 14,2010

    Hans @ 6:43 am

    Perry

    Can I ask is it the christian god you believe in? because I see some flaws with your argument (though I am not adverse to your basic premises) In believing in the Trinity you have drawn circles around three distinct identies and surely godels thoerum would then imply incompleteness..no?

    I have heard the explaination that the trinity are distinct parts of the same entity and equal, but biblical texts would seem to contradict in many places some examples.
    john 14:28 If you loved me, you would be glad that I’m going to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am.
    mathew 24:36 “But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone.

    How do you metaphorically square this.

    • April 14,2010

      Perry @ 9:39 am

      Hans,

      Whether this makes sense or not depends on how carefully you examine the Christian theology of the Trinity. Christian theology says Father, Son and Holy Spirit are indivisible and of one singe essence. They are never in disagreement or misunderstanding.

      At the same time they exist separately such that love exists between them and that they do manifest themselves in different forms. God the Father is the source of will, the Son is the expression of His will, the Holy Spirit is the understanding of his will. I liken this to a communication system at http://www.cosmicfingerprints.com/blog/video5 in the video titled “Information, Communication, and the Trinitarian Concept of God”.

      A communication system has 3 separate elements – encoder, code and decoder but all three are necessary for communication to exist and all three must be in harmony. I see an analogy here as I describe in the video.

      In Mathematical terms I would say that the Trinity is plural but is not a system. Godel’s theorem says:

      “Any effectively generated theory capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete.” Where “effectively generated” means “not trivially simple.”

      In other words the three expressions of God are not an expression of elementary arithmetic. Tentatively (I could be wrong about this, still thinking about it) I’m reminded me of Arthur’s example of a system of simple addition being both consistent and complete at the same time. The reason it can be so is that it is trivial, i.e. it does not fully express elementary arithmetic. It does addition but it doesn’t do division or multiplication. The same can also be said of the Trinity because the Trinity cannot be divided.

      To newcomers the Trinity appears to be some crazy theory until you realize that you cannot say “God is Love” as an identity statement if God is simply unitary because love is always in relation between one and another. For God to be love, God must be plural. But because God is love, God is also indivisible.

      Which is another way of saying: LOVE IS BOTH CONSISTENT AND COMPLETE. If you understand love, you understand God and you understand how the infinite is the source of all things finite.

      This doesn’t mean that when the spirit of God is one with a human being (as was the case with Jesus) that Jesus the physical person knew everything that God knew. Scripture says “He emptied himself, taking the form of a servant.” He set aside all his divine rights out of love for mankind. He really did have to learn to talk and he really did have to get potty trained. But even when he said, “My God My God why hast thou forsaken me?” that was the anguish of dying flesh. But he was always in essence God. God knows what it is like to experience death just as we do – because he loves us.

  69. April 16,2010

    JM @ 6:44 pm

    To all the people who say that this article is intended, or in some way attempts, to prove the existence of God: it does not. It simply says that by applying Godel’s theory, the people who believe in God have a logical reason for doing so. They have merely specified what they think is “outside the circle”. They may have taken this idea to certain extremes, but the basic tenet is logical. Any other belief that says the universe was caused by something outside the universe is equally logical. Not only that, but you cannot logically DISprove God, and while that doesn’t mean he exists, it means that you can’t say for sure that he doesn’t exist. Basically, people should believe what they need to believe to understand the universe and their own existence, as long as it is not harmful to other people, and belief in itself is not harmful. Taking that belief to extremes and inferring things from it like “anyone who doesn’t believe this should die” is simply human error. And I apologize for this not being organized, but I addressed the issues as I thought of them.

    • April 17,2010

      Perry @ 8:16 am

      JM,

      The article goes further than that. Materialism says

      “Naturalism is the hypothesis that the natural world is a closed system, which means that nothing that is not part of the natural world affects it.”

      This article shows that materialistic atheism violates the laws of logic and thus cannot be true.

      And it also makes a number of logical conclusions as to what the thing outside the universe is and is not. Is conscious and is immaterial, and is outside of space and time.

  70. April 17,2010

    David Beck @ 2:15 pm

    A professor of mine told us, “You throw enough s__ up and some of it is bound to stick.” You make an awful lot of assertions so I’m wondering if you could simply state for your readers the one “airtight” proposition that you claim follows from Gödel’s Incompleteness Theorem. If you’re interested in advancing your argument, I suggest this might be a way of staying on track.

    Could you also provide the source for your initial quote, “Anything you can draw a circle around cannot explain itself without referring to something outside the circle – something you have to assume but cannot prove” and also, if you could, a citation for your statement that “He [Gödel] proved that any statement requires an external observer.” I find the “circle” and “external observer” analogies curiously provocative and would like to understand these quotes in their original context.

    • April 17,2010

      Perry @ 10:31 pm

      “Anything you can draw a circle around cannot explain itself without referring to something outside the circle – something you have to assume but cannot prove” is my own plain-English rendering of Godel’s theorem. The formal version of the theorem says:

      “Any effectively generated theory capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete. In particular, for any consistent, effectively generated formal theory that proves certain basic arithmetic truths, there is an arithmetical statement that is true, but not provable in the theory.”

      The “circle” I refer to is the boundary between what is “in the theory” and what is outside of the theory. My plain-English rendering is sufficiently accurate, but you can use the formal version if you prefer.

      Regardless of which version you use, what it means is that if the universe is capable of computing arithmetic and if the universe is consistent (i.e. logical) then the universe is therefore incomplete.

      The external observer refers to the fact that when a person says “I am lying” (liar’s paradox) only an external agent can verify the truth or falsehood of that statement.

  71. April 18,2010

    David Beck @ 9:59 am

    If you wish to be taken seriously, you shouldn’t ascribe to Gödel something he never said. It’s, of course, dishonest, quotation marks and all, and hardly a minor point. It’s the difference between what Gödel wrote and your interpretation of what he wrote. Others in this thread have strongly disagreed with your interpretation of Gödel’s Theorem, but your use of the “circle” and “external observer” metaphors, which, I believe, are in their very nature an expression of your belief, have rolled through the discussion thread. When you denude your argument of these images, you’re left with the reality of Gödel’s theorem and how do you get from it to your proposition: “if the universe is capable of computing arithmetic and if the universe is consistent (i.e. logical) then the universe is therefore incomplete.“ The connection is not at all clear as you have a herculean, if not impossible, task in defining your terms. For example, what do you mean by “universe? and what do you mean “capable of computing arithmetic?” Throughout history, these terms or concepts have confounded the most brilliant minds, which, in turn, have produced and continue to produce a diverse range of scholarly opinions, the depth and breadth of which takes my breath away. Even if you could climb this mountain, Gödel’s Proof would be there to tell you that you don’t know everything. Your use of “circles” and “external observers” are unacceptable shortcuts to the difficult task of climbing the mountain. You would do yourself and your readers a service by honestly stating your belief, which, in this regard, is simply that the universe is such that you can draw a circle around it and what’s outside the circle is God. You don’t need Gödel or the “authority” of science to make this statement. It’s your belief.

    • April 19,2010

      Perry @ 6:28 am

      Defining Universe: Look it up in a dictionary. All known matter, energy, space and time. The same universe that the big bang physicists like Stephen Hawking write about. This is very well defined.

      Computing Arithmetic: Read the Church-Turing thesis. Or Godel’s paper for that matter.

      External observer: Ostensibly necessary to judge the truth or falsehood of the statement “I am lying.”

      I have stated my entire argument here on this thread. If there is a flaw in my logic you are invited to point it out.

  72. April 19,2010

    David Beck @ 10:58 am

    If you actually cared to consider what others and I have said, you would have to concede you have no argument. But astonishingly your argument is also based on a lie – not some incidental or vague lie but a deliberately calculated one in bold colored lettering with quotation marks around it. A lie that you repeatedly come back to in various guises in your article and throughout the thread – the word “circle” appears over 100 times. This lie has nothing to do with Gödel or scientific inquiry, but is the very foundation of your theological beliefs, which, at this point, I’m sorry to report, couldn’t stand up to a good wind.

    • April 19,2010

      Perry @ 11:55 am

      Godel’s theorems are explicitly about that which is “inside the theory” as opposed to that which is “outside the theory.” Any time there is an inside and an outside, there is a boundary. My usage of the word circle is appropriate.

      If you wish to show a fault in my logic based on Godel’s formal statement then you are invited to use that approach.

  73. April 19,2010

    Hans @ 12:56 pm

    Perry

    Having taken much time and effort to read and watch all of your work and cross referenced them with my own experiences. I find myself at odds with certain assumptions and conclusions that you reach. I suspect that this may well be my last corespondence with you but (and this sums it up both metaphorically and literally) anything is posible.

    As you try to reconcile logic and the acceptance of an uncaused eternal god I wish you good luck. I personally believe now that far from being irational atheists have a perfectly rational basis for their stance. Providing that the laws of physics at points in this universe can be “irational”

    Main Entry: ir·ra·tio·nal
    Pronunciation: ir-’ra-sh&-n&l
    Function: adjective
    : not rational: not governed by reason, mental clarity, or >>>understanding<<<

    there will be at some scale or point where they will "appear" rational. We know so little about the universe from our tiny point of existence that even the circle you seek to draw around it is ireconcilable to its radius from here to the edge if it exists. without accepting irationality and taking an aproximation.

    From any point on the circumference to a central point we cannot even reconcile the smallest circle (Pi x r^2) where pi is a non recursive number. To reach that central point exactly is imposible we would have to start drawing a line and at some point slow down and down untill the line to all intense and purposes had reached that centre. But magnify it; and we would see we have a little further to go (or we had gone too far!) at some point we would reach a quantum level at which point we see all sorts of "irational" behaviour. time itself starts to interact with matter and vice versa. We may start to see particles which are split and are able to convey information of change even though they have no longer any known physical relationship/connection to each other.

    To state that DNA is too complex to have developed without a creator and even that this same creator must have created the universe we observe is an example of Dunning-Kruger effect. (which I fully accept I also am guilty of) We simply do not yet have enough information or the tools to be able to state catagoricaly that an omniscient, omnipotent being does or does not exist. I think that it is fair to infer it as part of our exploration into our own consciousness but to state it as fact, is like saying a+b=G it can have no proof untill all the atributes of a and b can catagorically be stated as complete.

    Thank you for the time you have taken to answer my corespondences and good luck in your quest for the "unknowable"

    Yours in Ignorance,
    Hans

    • April 21,2010

      Perry @ 6:47 am

      Hans,

      I think you are confusing two different meanings of irrationality. An irrational number is not illogical. And even if it takes us an infinite number of calculations to reach the center of a circle, do we not still know with absolute certainty that the center exists?

      Is it rational to believe that the universe appeared, caused by nothing and for no reason at all, as atheists do?

      Based on what we do know so far, is it rational to believe that a highly efficient modular redundant optimized self-repairing digital code occurred by accident?

      Based on what we do know, is it rational to believe that the fine tuning of the universe (ie the expansion of the big bang is fine tuned to at least 120 decimal places of precision) is just happenstance?

      Is there anything I have said regarding incompleteness that is illogical?

      Are you sure it is rational to say that the existence of God is unknowable?

      Is there any argument I have made regarding Incompleteness that is irrational?

      Also I’m curious, what was the result of the recording of the person speaking in tongues?

      Perry

      P.S.: Logic can infer but it cannot truly prove. So I believe that in your search for the truth, there is a point where you need to say, “OK God if you’re here, please show me.” And in your heart you need to be willing to put yourself in that place of emotional risk. It is a place of listening and watching and being open. It is a scary and rewarding place – I know. Ultimately though it is more rewarding than scary.

      Matthew 7:7 “Ask and it will be given to you; seek and you will find; knock and the door will be opened to you. 8For everyone who asks receives; he who seeks finds; and to him who knocks, the door will be opened. 9″Which of you, if his son asks for bread, will give him a stone? 10Or if he asks for a fish, will give him a snake? 11If you, then, though you are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give good gifts to those who ask him!

      Matthew 13:45 “Again, the kingdom of heaven is like a merchant looking for fine pearls. When he found one of great value, he went away and sold everything he had and bought it.”

  74. April 19,2010

    David Beck @ 11:53 pm

    Your “circle” requires evidence or a proof. Then we can talk about the merits of your argument. Lying about what Gödel says and then jumping from his proof regarding formal systems to the universe, I’m sorry, doesn’t count. Maybe you could find some other scientist, of the caliber of Stephen Hawking, who has used the circle metaphor to describe the universe – I wouldn’t bet on it. The Wikipedia’s discussion on the universe, which most people would say is just the tip of the iceberg, is eighteen pages long, 8,500 words, 72 citations, and there’s NOT ONE single reference to an “encircled” universe. However, I bet there are some religious sources that use this analogy, but as I understand it that’s not how you want to develop your argument. By the way, on your insistence that the universe is capable of computing arithmetic, I’d like to refer you to Sir Michael Atiyah, one of the greatest mathematician of the 20th century, who argues that a concept as basic as that of natural numbers was created by man. I mention this only to assure you that this issue is far from settled as you would like people to believe.

    • April 20,2010

      Perry @ 7:53 am

      If you wish to hypothesize that the universe is infinitely large or massive then that’s up to you. I am referring to the universe that is known and observable to science: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Observable_universe#Size

      Space itself is of finite size, that is a direct consequence of Einstein’s space-time theorems. It has finite mass and spans finite time. If the universe is finite then it has some outer boundary.

      If you wish to say that arithmetic is a human construction, that’s fine. This still has no consequence to the truth of Godel’s statement. Mathematics is incomplete and if the universe is mathematical then the universe too is incomplete.

      It is not necessary for me to invoke circles to prove my point. We can go to Godel’s original statement.

      Godel’s theorem says:

      “Any effectively generated theory capable of expressing elementary arithmetic cannot be both consistent and complete. In particular, for any consistent, effectively generated formal theory that proves certain basic arithmetic truths, there is an arithmetical statement that is true, but not provable in the theory.”

      The Church-Turing thesis says that a physical system can express elementary arithmetic just as a human can, and that the arithmetic of a Turing Machine (computer) is not provable within the system and is likewise subject to incompleteness.

      Any physical system subjected to measurement is capable of expressing elementary arithmetic.

      Therefore the universe is capable of expressing elementary arithmetic and like both mathematics itself and a Turing machine, is incomplete.

  75. April 20,2010

    David Beck @ 10:09 am

    Although I think your argument has been completely demolished, and ironically I think you should be happy for that, there’s just one last nail I’d like to hammer into its coffin. Let’s assume that somehow you can pull the proverbial rabbit out of the hat and prove that the universe is such that you can draw a circle around it, formalize all of its laws (past, present, and future), apply Gödel’s proof, find the universe consistent, but not complete, and conclude “there could be a God.” What I think you should find frightening about this scenario, is that in the process you would have created a completely formal, rational, mechanistic, universe – the very universe that you eschew – a universe in which miracles are no longer possible – Christ’s birth and resurrection explained away. You’re left with the possibility that there might be a God. You may want to be careful of what you wish for.

    • April 20,2010

      Perry @ 10:36 am

      You’re telling me that my circle analogy is invalid… then in the same breath saying it’s impossible to draw a circle around the universe because the universe is infinite.

      If you think the circle analogy is invalid, why are you using it to build your own argument?

      Mathematics is incomplete. The universe is mathematical. Therefore if the universe is consistent it is necessarily incomplete as well.

      Miracles are possible for the same reason coded information is possible – because the universe can be acted up